SS 2 SECOND TERM EXAMINATION

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

ENGLISH STUDIES S S 3

 

In each of the following sentences, there is one underlined word and one gap. From the list of words lettered A to D, choose the one that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word and that will, at the same time, correctly fill the gap in the sentence.

1. Most African countries face poverty while few enjoy ……………………….
2. influence
3. money
4. affluence
5. power
6. Last year our farmers cultivated more crops than they……………………….
7. destroyed
8. uprooted
9. harvested
10. yielded

From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that best completes each of the following sentences.

3. There would have been a riot in our school but for the timely……………..of our staff.
4. intervention
5. interruption
6. interference
7. invasion
8. The armed robbers ……………every room in the bank to look for money.
9. explored
10. ransacked
11. raked
12. swept

After each of the following sentences, a list of possible interpretations is given. Choose the interpretation that you consider most appropriate for each sentence.

5. Ade is too clever by half. This means that Ade is
6. far cleverer than others.
7. actually very stupid in his behaviour.
8. annoyingly clever.
9. behaving to be clever but is not.
10. Ameh is really being economical with the truth. This means that Ameh
11. is being praised for being honest.
12. does not know enough.
13. knows more than he is prepared to say.
14. is not telling the truth

From the words lettered A to D below each of the following sentences, chose the word or group of words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word as it is used in the sentence.

7. By failing to attend the interview, Idoko has lost a golden opportunity.
8. blessed
9. bright
10. good
11. delightful
12. I hope the principal would be gracious enough to forgive us.
13. cordial
14. polite
15. merciful
16. gentle

From the words or group of words lettered A to D, choose the word or group of words that best completes each of the following sentences.

9. A good citizen abides ………….. the rules of the land.
10. with
11. in
12. at
13. by
14. Since his swearing in, the governor ……………….. his hometown.
15. had not been visiting
16. has not visited
17. did not visit
18. had not visited

PAPER 3 (TEST 0F ORALS]

 

SECTION 1

From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that has the same vowel sound as the one represented by the letters underlined.

11. wit
12. fright
13. wheat
14. tree
15. market
16. look
17. glue
18. you
19. cup
20. curious

SECTION 2

From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that has the same consonant sound(s) as the one represented by the letter(s) underlined.

13. dance
14. handsome
15. sandwich
16. adjective
17. pounding
18. plucked
19. smiled
20. slammed
21. luck
22. table

SECTION 3

From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that rhymes with the given word.

15. carrier
16. area
17. barrier
18. serious
19. ravine
20. drought
21. crowd
22. nought
23. shout
24. taught

SECTION 4

In each of the following questions, the main/primary stress is indicated by writing the syllable on which it occurs in capital letters. From the words lettered A to D, choose the one that has the correct stress.

17. acrimony
18. A-cri-mo-ny
19. a-CRI-mo-ny
20. a-cri-MO-ny
21. a-cri-mo-NY

SECTION 5:

In the following options lettered A to D, all the words except one have the same stress pattern. Identify the one with the different stress pattern.

18. A. sanctify
19. promising
20. notify
21. organic

SECTION 6

In each of the following sentences, the word that receives the emphatic stress is written in capital letters. From the questions lettered A to D, choose the one to which the given sentence is the appropriate answer.

19. The DOCTOR examined the patient with a stethoscope.
20. Did the teacher examine the patient with a stethoscope?
21. Did the doctor cure the patient with a stethoscope?
22. Did the doctor examine the nurse with a stethoscope?
23. Did the doctor examine the patient with a telescope?

SECTION 7

From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that contains the sound represented by the given phonetic symbol.

20. / ǝ /
21. accurate
22. nephew
23. ageless
24. waddle

 

 

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;

21. In the match against the uplanders team, the sub mariners turned out to be the dark horse

• A. played most brilliantly
• B. played below their usual form
• C. won unexpectedly
• D. lost as expected
• E. won as expected

 

 

 

22. Only the small fry get punished for such social misdemeanors

• A. small boys
• B. unimportant people
• C. frightened people
• D. frivolous people
• E. inexperienced people

 

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;
23. He spoke with his heart in his mouth

• A. courageously
• B. with such unusual cowardice
• C. with a lot of confusion in his speech
• D. without being able to make up his mind
• E. with fright and agitation

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;

24. The leader in today’s issue of our popular newspaper focuses on inflation

• A. president
• B. headline
• C. editorial
• D. columnist
• E. proprietor

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;
25. From the ways my friend talks, you can see he is such a bore

• A. rude
• B. brilliant
• C. uninteresting
• D. overbearing
• E. humorous

26. His jail terms were to run concurrently

• A. simultaneously
• B. uniformly
• C. laboriously
• D. consecutively
• E. judiciously

27. There is some obvious symmetry  in the whole presentation

• A. confusion
• B. hesitation
• C. excitement
• D. orderliness
• E. dissatisfaction

28. The bill has to wait as we are now insolvent

• A. overworked
• B. bankrupt
• C. unsettled
• D. insoluble
• E. affluent ;

29. All his plans fell through

• A. failed
• B. were accomplished
• C. had to be reviewed
• D. were rejected
• E. fell

30. The balance sheet at the end of the business year shows that we broke even

• A. lost heavily
• B. made profit
• C. neither lost nor gained
• D. had no money to continue business
• E. were heavily indebted to our bankers

Complete each of the following sentences by choosing the option that most suitably fills the space;

31. Before the operation, the dentist found that his patient’s teeth….

• A. have long decayed
• B. have long been decayed
• C. have long being decayed
• D. had long decayed
• E. had been decayed

32. The employer, not the salesman and his representative …. responsible for the loss

• A. are
• B. are being
• C. are never
• D. have been
• E. is

 

33. The boy was born before his parents actually got married and so the court has declared him ….

• A. illegal
• B. illegitimate
• C. illicit
• D. unlawful
• E. untenable

 

34. As he was still owing me two naira, i was careful not to …. him any more money

• A. lend
• B. loan
• C. borrow
• D. extend
• E. credit

 

35. Last week the …. at the theater was the longest i had ever seen

• A. assembly
• B. congregation
• C. convention
• D. audience
• E. crowd

 

36.He went abroad with a view …. a business partner

• A. to find
• B. to be finding
• C. to have found
• D. to finding
• E. he will find

37 He had just entered the office …. the telephone rang

• A. as
• B. before
• C. since
• D. when
• E. until

38. They …. receive visitor on short notice

• A. use to
• B. are used to
• C. used to
• D. are always
• E. are use to

39. His suggestion are completely …. the point and cannot be accepted

• A. to
• B. about
• C. beside
• D. on
• E. under

40. For …. he is a secretary we shall not have correct minutes

• A. because
• B. as long as
• C. so long
• D. in as much
• E. although

 

41. He went up quickly and returned ….

• A. fastest
• B. fastly
• C. as fastly
• D. as fast
• E. in fastness

42. Invariably, he ends his letters …. amicably

• A. you
• B. your’s
• C. yours’
• D. yours
• E. your own

43. If i went to the cinema i …. early

• A. shall return
• B. am returning
• C. would return
• D. had return
• E. may return

44. The traditional folktales form an …. to the book

• A. index
• B. insertion
• C. information
• D. overview
• E. appendix

45. The frightening explosion in the factory …. whole wing

• A. washed out
• B. wiped out
• C. rooted out
• D. flushed out
• E. cleared out

 

46. Our plane was scheduled to …. at 10.00 hrs but it was delayed because of the bad weather

• A. fly out
• B. take off
• C. start out
• D. shoot off
• E. lift off

47. As luck would have it, the weather brightened almost immediately and after six hours flight we …. at Heathrow Airport

• A. touched down
• B. dropped
• C. came down
• D. flew down
• E. stopped

48. Before we left the airport, each passenger was made to …. certain form

• A. fill in
• B. write in
• C. enter in
• D. go through
• E. read out

49. My father cannot bear the …. of the concoction that emanates from my mothers soup pot

• A. sweet
• B. savouring
• C. aroma
• D. smell
• E. scent

50. I would not have condescended to appease the traffic policeman but i happened …. traffic regulation

• A. to have broken
• B. to be breaking
• C. to break
• D. to break in
• E. to have evaded

 

 

 

PAPER 2

SECTION A (50 MARKS)

Answer one question only from this section. All questions carry equal marks. Your answer should not be less than 450 words.

You are advised to spend about 50 minutes on this section.

1. Your friend in another school has requested information about your school to enable him to decide on moving over to your school. Write a letter to him discussing at least three areas in which your school excels.
2. Write an article for publication in your school magazine, discussing the reasons why children in your area drop out of school and suggesting ways of minimizing it.
3. As the president of your youth club, write a letter to the chairman of your Local Government Association complaining about the increasing rate of child labour and suggesting ways of curbing it.
4. You are the chief speaker in a debate on the topic: Women should not be in paid employment while still bearing children. Write your contribution for or against the topic.
5. 5. Write a story that ends with the words: That experience will linger on my mind for a long time.

SECTION B

COMPREHENSION

(20 marks)

Dele groaned and got out of bed. There was no clock on the mantel piece and the room was still dark, but he knew that he was already late for work, probably by an hour. He was a commercial bus driver and had to get started as early as 5.00a.m. and go almost non-stop till about 9.00 p.m. to be able to make the daily returns that the bus owner demanded.

On the previous day, he had attended an all-night party – a late uncle’s burial ceremony – where he had drunk himself almost senseless before crawling home in the early hours of the morning. Now, he got up shakily, splashed water on his face and hurried off to work, but not before carefully fastening on his upper left arm the amulet he had always worn for protection against accidents. A similar amulet hung concealed under the steering column of his bus. On his way, still feeling groggy, he caught his left toe against a stump and had some misgiving. It was a bad sign, and he was supposed to go back home and then set out again. But there was no time for that now, so he hurried on.

At the bus station, Dele quickly loaded his bus and sped off without any of the necessary checks on the vehicle. He had to make up for lost time. It was the rush hour, so the bus was overloaded as it often was, with many passengers hanging on to the doors. The tyres were threadbare, the brakes were faulty and the road was wet, but, still feeling a little sleepy, Dele sped on. Many passengers protested about his reckless driving, but he would not listen. After all, didn’t he have protection against accident?

As the vehicle took the last turn before its destination, Dele saw a broken-down truck blocking his side of the road. Under normal circumstances, he could have brought the bus safely to a halt, bur the circumstances were far from normal. The careering bus hit the parked vehicle, swerved wildly across the road and plunged into a ditch.

Dele’s surprise before he sank into oblivion was the failure of his supposedly protective amulets.

(a) Why did Dele wake up late?

(b) …he caught his left toe against a stump and had some misgivings. What does this tell us about Dele?

(c) Give two reasons why Dele drove recklessly.

(d) Why was Dele unable to stop his faulty vehicle?

(e) What was Dele’s condition after the accident?

(f) After all, didn’t he have protection against accident? What literary device is used in this expression?

(g) …wildly across the road…

(i) What grammatical name is given to the expression as it is used in the passage?

(ii) What is its function?

(h) For each of the following words, find another word or phrase which means the same and
can replace it in the passage:
i. probably;

1. returns;

iii. groggy;

1. misgiving
2. threadbare
3. reckless.

SECTION C

(SUMMARY) [30 MARKS]

You are advised to spend about 50 minutes on this section.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions on it.

You cannot expect to go through life without meeting problems. Difficulties, perplexities and frustrations are an inevitable part of human experience. Accepting this idea of the inevitability of problems will help you to approach them in a robust frame of mind rather than thinking that you are a victim specially singled out by malignant fate. When confronted with a problem, the first thing to do is gather all relevant data to get acquainted with the facts of the case. Then write down exactly what the problem is, stating it simply in black and white. This gives you something definite with which to come to terms. The problem is assessed and you will now have something concrete to deal with.

Next, give serious thought to the problem, making sure that such thought does not degenerate into worry as worry accomplishes nothing. Aim at clear, dispassionate thought, viewing the problem as if it were a friend’s and not your own. Look at it from all angles and from the point of view of all concerned. You court disaster if you are entirely selfish in your outlook. The single important purpose of all this is to discover all possible solutions to the problem.

Having examined the problem broadly and impartially, carefully examine all the possible solutions or courses of action. The knowledge that you have done this will keep you from useless regrets later, when you can remind yourself that all courses of action were examined and you chose what appeared to be the best. Next, eliminate all proposed solutions which are seen on further thought to be impracticable.

You will now find that your list has been whittled down to two or three possibilities. At this stage it is often a good plan to get out into the open air. Go for a walk or a ride, preferably somewhere with wide horizons. There, out in the open, review the problem afresh. You will find it appears less formidable. Ask yourself how the difficulty will appear in ten years’ time or even one! This fresh review will enable you to make a final choice as you turn to the remaining solutions and, before you return home, decide which one you are going to adopt. As you go to sleep that night, let your last thoughts be upon your decision. If, in the morning, you still feel it is the best one to take, go ahead.

If you have a friend who is capable of giving sound advice, consult him. Do this before your final decision, so that you will have the benefit of his views before you decide. Talking things over with another is always a great help. It enables you to isolate the problem and to decide which on which factors are important. Even if the friend offers no advice, a sympathetic ear will help you. Furthermore, as you describe to your friend the courses open to you, you will see them in clearer light. Some will appear impossible even as you speak. Alternatively, one will appear most attractive.

In dealing with problems, remember the time factor. Although some problems solve themselves in time, and delaying tactics is therefore the best form of action for them, most other problems generally get more complicated the longer they are left. You should therefore get to grips with the problems immediately they occur.

All told, reasonable foresight and imagination can prevent many problems ever arising. Tact, thoughtfulness and responsible conduct can also keep life largely problem-free.

In six sentences, one for each, summarize the steps to be taken when faced with a problem and state why each step is necessary.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

CLASS:  S 3

SUBJECT:  GOVERNMENT

 

Instruction: Answer all questions in this section

 

1. A constitution is said to be rigid if it

(a) Unwritten   (b) can be amended by the President  (c) is difficult to amend  (c) decreed by soldiers

2. Who am ong the following is associated with the concept of rule of law?

(a) Jean Bodin (b) A V Dicey    (c) Jeremy Bentham   (d) Montesgueen Baron

3. The lack of interest in politics by many citizens in a country is called

(a) civil agitation  (b) mass apathy   (c) mass protest  (d) political unrest

4. A unitary system of government is most suitable for a

(a) Highly religious country (b) country with mineral resources (c) Highly populated country (d) small country

5. A unicameral legislature has

(a) Two lowers   (b) one house   (c) three houses   (d) one-two houses

6. A multi-party system of government give room for _____________

(a) Singly party   (b) many parties   (c) three parties   (d) no party

7. The right of the citizens to vote and be voted for in an election is called

(a) Indirect election             (b) nomination (c) general election  (d) franchise

8. An agreed set of rules of governing a country is called ________

(a) Constitution   (b) charter      (c) hazard   (d) nomination

9. All types of government perform all the following functions except

(a) Providing welfare and developmental facilities

(b) Maintaining law and order   (c) encouraging crime   (d) encouraging employment

10. __________ is a type of constitution that is documented

(a) Unwritten   (b) written   (c) Flexible   (d) Unitary

11. All these are ways of losing citizenship except a. disloyalty b. imprisonment c. false declaration d. good character.
12. the group that influence government decisions socially or economically a. political party d. popular participation c. pressure group d. socialism
13. The act of electing candidates to prevent the people of a given country a. voter b. election c. population d. disunity
14. All these are type of elections except a. direct election b. indirect election c. bye election d. voting
15. ____________ is one of our fundamental human right a. right to privacy b.cleaning of road c. voting d. registration
16. The judiciary is an organ of government which [a] settles dispute  [b]  makes laws for the country  [c] gives legal backing to government budget
17. To provide justice in a state , judges must be [a] belong to the ruling party  [b] punish people  [c] enjoy security of tenure of office.
18. People pay taxes in order to [a]  generate revenue government [b] obtain a tax clearance certificate  [c]  save towards the future
19. A multi – party system often leads to [a]  unitary government  [b]  coalation of government  [c]  dictorial governmrnt
20. The right of the citizen to vote and be voted for in an election [a] franchise  [b] nomination  [c] general election
21. An electoral college is a ………… [a] form of indirect [b] school of electoral officers  [c] school of election
22. One of the major advantage of the secret ballot system of election is that ……….. [a]  helps to elect the best candidate  [b] remove the fear of threat  [c] enable the best party to win

23        Public opinion can be expressed through [a] census  [b] general strike  [c] compromise

24. Government as an act of governing refers to the process of [a] ruling  people in the society  [b] establishing political party  [c] none of the above
25. Military government are likely to be [a]  democratic   [b] civilized   [c] dictatorial

 

26. Government refers to all the following, except
27. an institution of the state
28. the process of ruling a political community
29. the exercise of power and authority
30. the activities of decision-makers
31. the act of civil disobedience
32. Government as the act of governing means the
33. activities of pressure groups and political parties
34. act of vetoing a bill
35. orders of judiciary and legislature
36. activities by which government policies are made and implemented
37. activities of parliamentary opposition
38. Unwritten constitution means that the constitution is
39. not written down
40. based only on converntions
41. not contained in any single book
42. in draft
43. not approved
44. The delegation of Administrative Powers to the local units with the central supervision and control is called
45. devolution
46. decentralizetion
47. deconcentration
48. centralization
49. concentration
50. Which of the following is not the function of the government?
51. Building of roads, bridges, canals, etc
52. Provision of education
53. Maintenance of relations with other states
54. defence of territory from external attack
55. Provision of all the material needs of all citizens
56. A flexible constitution can only be amended by
57. two-third (2/3) majorityvote in the legistrature
58. referendum
59. three-quarters (3/4) majority vote in the legistrature
60. plebiscite
61. simple majority vote in the legistrature
62. Which one of the following countries has an unwritten constitution?
63. Great Britain
64. France
65. United State of American
66. Federal Republic of Germany
67. Germany Democratic Republic
68. A rigid constitution is said to be best suited for a
69. Federal Government
70. Socialist Government
71. Military Government
72. Unitary government
73. Fascist Government
74. Federal Elections were held in Nigeria in
75. 1946,1951,1954,1979 and 1983
76. 1954,1959,1964,1979 and 1983
77. 1923, 1946,1951,1979,and 1983
78. 1954,1960,1964,1979 and1983
79. 1960,1963,1964,1979 and 1983
80. The two components of sovereignty are
81. the rule of law and fundamental human rights
82. political power and political authority
83. political culture and political socialization
84. influence and poltical authority
85. political independence and supreme authority of the state within its territory
86. A Nigeria citizen can only be deprived of his citizenship if he is
87. condemned to death
88. convicted by a court of law
89. married to a foreigner
90. holding a dual citizenship
91. an armed robber
92. In the process of governing, OUTPUT refers to
93. the influence of pressure group
94. demand of the political system
95. the decision of the government
96. the opinion of the electorate
97. the influence of political parties
98. Another word for red-tapism is
99. democracy
100. authocracy
101. idiosyncrasy
102. bureaucracy
103. theocracy
104. Rule adjudication is the main function of the
105. Executive
106. President
107. Legistature
108. Judiciary
109. National Assembly

40.The major problem that arose from the 1979 election centred around the

1. inability of many voters to find their names on the voters register
2. cancellation of election results in many constituencies because of alleged irregularities
3. inability of some dissatisfied candidates to seek redress in the court of law
4. controversy over the presidential election result
5. widespread complaint that too many elections were scheduled too close together

 

 

 

 

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

CLASS: SS2 &SS3

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS

 

THEORY

1. If 9 ^{2x +1} = Find x
2. Without using Mathematical Tables, evaluate
3. 2. Solve the following pair of simultaneous equations 2x + 5y = 6½

5x – 2y = 9

1. If Log₁₀^{(2x +1)} – Log₁₀ ^{(3x -2)} = 1, Find x

3a. The angle of a sector of a circle radius 7cm is 108⁰. Calculate the perimeter of the sector. (Take π= 22/7)

300. A boat is on the same horizontal level as the foot of a cliff, and the top of the cliff is 30⁰. If the boat is 120m away from the foot of the cliff, find the height of the cliff. Correct to three significant figures.
301. In a game, a fair die is rolled once and two unbiased coins are tossed once. What is the probability of obtaining 3 and a tail?
302. A box contains 10 marbles, 7 of which are black and 3 are red. Two marbles are drawn one after the other without replacement. Find the probability of getting
303. A red, then a black marble
304. Two black marbles
305. If 17x = 375 ²– 356², find the exact value of x
306. if 4^x = 2^½ X 8, find X.

10cm

71. The sum of the first 9 terms of an A.P is 72 and the sum of the next 4 term is 71. Find the A.P

630

 

 

 

 

Calculate the area of the shaded segment of the circle shown in the diagram (Takeπ = 22/7)

1. A tin has radius 3cm and height 6cm. find the
2. total surface area of the tin
3. Volume in litres of liquid that will fill the tin to capacity, correct to two decimal places (Takeπ = 22/7)

 

 

7. Copy and complete the following table for the relation y = 5/2 + X – 4X²

X	-2.0	-1.5	-1.0	-0.5	0	0.5	1	1.5	2
Y	-15.5			1	2.5

2. Using a scale of 2cm to 1 unit on the X axis and 2cm to 5 units on the y-axis, draw the graph of the relation for -2.0 ≤ X ≤2.0
3. What is the maximum value of y?

from your graph obtain the roots of the equation 8x² – 2x – 5 =n 0

8a. The distribution of junior workers in an illustration is as follows:

Clerks          –       78

Drivers          –      36

Typists           –      44

Messengers  –       52

Others          –       30

Represent the above information by a pie chart

1. The table below shows the frequency distribution of marks scored by 30 candidates in an aptitude test

Marks	4	5	6	7	8	9
Number of Candidates	5	8	5	6	4	2

Find the mean score to the nearest whole number

9. Three towns P,Q and R are such that the distance between P and Q is 50km and the distance between P and R is 90km. if the bearing of Q from P is 075⁰ and the bearing of R from P is 310⁰ , find the
10. Distance between Q and R,
11. Bearing of R and Q
12. The table below shows the weekly profit in naira from a Mini- Market

Weekly Profit (₦)	1-10	11-20	21-30	31-40	41-50	51-60
Frequency	6	6	12	11	10	5

 

1. Draw the Cumulative Frequency graph of the data
2. From your graph, estimate the
   1. Median ii. 80^th Percentile     iii. What is the modal weekly profit?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

OBJECTIVE

1. Find (101₂)² expressing the answer in base 2(a) 10101 (b) 11001 (c) 10010 (d) 11101 (e) 10110
2. If 3 children share ₦10.50 among themselves in the ratio 6:7:8, how much is the largest share?(a) ₦ 3.00 (b) ₦3.50 (c) ₦4.00 (d) ₦4.50 (e) ₦ 5.00
3. Express 0.000834 in standard form(a) 8.34 x 10^-4 (b) 8.34 x 10^-3 (c) 8.34 x 10³ (d) 8.34 x 10⁴ (e) 8.34 x 10⁶
4. Simplify 0.027^-1/3(a) 3¹_/3 (b) 3 (c) 3/10 (d)1/3 (e) 1/9
5. Given that log^a₂ = log⁴₈ , Find a(a) 2^1/2 (b) 4^1/3 (c) 4^2/3 (d) 2^2/3 (e) 2³
6. By selling some crates of soft drinks for ₦600.00, a dealer makes a profit of 50%. How much did the dealer pay for the drinks?(a) ₦1,200.00 (b) ₦900.00 (c) ₦450.00 (d) ₦400.00 (e) ₦200.00
7. Find the nth term Un of the A.P; 11, 4,-3, ­­­­­­_______(a) un= 19 + 7n (b) un= 19-7n (c)= 18-7n (d) un= 18+7n (e) un= 17-7n
8. If 16/9, X, 1, y are in Geometric Progression (GP). Find the product of X and Y (a) 9/16 (b) ¾ (c) 1 (d) 4/3 (e) 16/9
9. If R = { 2,4,6,8} and S= { 1, 2, 3, 4, 8}, the RUS equal (a) { 1,2,4,6,7,8} (b) {1,2,4,7,8} (c) {1,4,7,8} (d) {2,6,7} (e) {2,4}
10. In the diagram below, the shaded portion is (a) P’nR (b) QnR (c) P’nQnR (d) (PuQ)’nR (e) (PnQ)U(P’nR)
11. Find the values of X for which the expression is undefined 6x-1x2 – 4x-5 (a) +4 or +1 (b) -5 or +1 (c) -5 or -1 (d) +5 or -1 (e) +4 or -1
12. Which of the following could be the inequality illustrated in the sketch graph below? (a) y≥-2x + 1 (b) y ≤ -3x + 3 (c) y < 3x _2 (d) y ≤ x +3 (e) y ≥ 3x + 2
13. Solve the inequality 13(2x – 1)<5 (a) x< -5 (b) x<-6 (c) x<7 (d) x< 8 (e) x<16
14. What is the smaller value of X for which x² – 3x + 2 = 0 (a) 1 (b) 2 9c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5
15. Factorize the expression X(a-c) + y(c-a) (a) (a-c)(y-x) (b) (a-c)(x-y) (c) (a+c)(x-y) (d) (a+c)(x + y) (e) (a-c)(x+y)
16. Solve the equation 3x² + 25x – 18 = 0 (a) x = -3 or 2 (b) x = -2 or 3 (c) x =-2 or – 9 (d) x = -9 or 2/3 (e) -2/3, 9
17. Solve the equation (x +2 )(x – 7) = 0 (a) x = 1 or 8 (b) x  = 2 or 7 (c) x = -4 or 5 (d) x =-3 or 6 (e) x = -5 or -2
18. Solve the following simultaneous equations: X +Y = 3/2, X- y = 5/2 and use your result to find the value of 2y + x (a) -2 (b) -1 (c) ½ (d) 1 (e) 3 ½
19. The diagonals AC and BD of a rhombus ABCD are 16cm and 12cm long respectively. Calculate the area of the rhombus. (a) 24cm² (b) 36 cm² (c) 48 cm² (d) 60 cm² (e) 96 cm²
20. A water tank of height ½ m has a square base of side 1 ½ m. if it is filled with water from a water tank holding 1500 litres, how many litres of water are left in the water tanker? (1000 Litres = 1m³) (a) 37.5 Litres (b) 375 Litres (c) 3750 Litres (d) 37500 Litres (e) 375000 Litres

A cylindrical container closed at both ends, has a radius of 7cm and height cm.

Use this information to answer question 21 and 22 (Take π = 22/7)

21. Find the total surface area of the container (a) 35cm³ (b) 154 cm³ (c) 220 cm³ (d) 528cm² (e) 770 cm²
22. What is the volume of the container (a) 35cm³ (b) 154 cm³ (c) 220 cm³(d) 528 cm³ (e) 770 cm³
23. Find the total surface area of a solid circular cone with base radius 3cm and slant height 4cm (Take π = 22/7) (a) 37 ⁵/₇ (b) 66cm² (c) 75 ³/₇ cm² (d) 78 ²/₇ cm² (e) 88cm²
24. A hollow sphere has a volume of K cm³ and a surface are of K cm². Calculate the diameter of the sphere (a) 3cm (b) 6cm (c) 9 cm (d) 12 cm (e) More information is needed
25. A 120^o sector of a circle of radius 21 cm is bent to form a cone. What is the base radius of the cone? (a) 3 ½ cm (b) 7 cm (c) 10 ½ cm (d) 14 cm (e) 21 cm
26. The angle of a sector of a circle is 108^o. if the radius of the circle is 3 ½ cm, find the perimeter of the sector (a) 6 ³/₅ cm (b) 6 ⁴/₅ cm (c) 7 ¹/₁₀ cm (d) 10 ²/₅ cm (e)13 ³/₅cm
27. In the diagram below, AO is perpendicular to OB. Find X (a) 7.5^o (b) 15⁰ (c) 22.5⁰ (d) 30⁰ (e)38.6⁰

 

 

28. In the diagram above, PQ is parallel to TU, < PQR = 50⁰, <QRS = 86⁰ and < STU=64⁰. Calculate the value of x (a) 136⁰ (b) 120⁰ (c) 108⁰ (d) 100⁰ (e)96⁰
29. If Log ₁₀^x = 2.3675 and Log ₁₀^y = 2.9738, what is the value of x + y, correct to three significant figures? (a) 0.117 (b) 0.118 (c) 0.903 (d) 0.944 (e)0.946
30. Without using tables, find the value of sin200cos700+ cos250sin650 (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) -1 (e) -2
31. In the diagram below, <PRQ = 90⁰, <QPR = 30⁰ and |PQ| = 10cm. find y (a) 6cm (b) 5 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 3 cm (e)2 cm

P 10 CMQ   Y R

300

 

 

 

 

 

 

32. What is the mode of the numbers 8,10,9,9,10,8,11,8,10,9,8 and 14? (a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 11 (e) 14
33. The mean of 20 0bservations in an experiment is 4, if the observed largest value is 23, find the mean of the remaining observations (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2.85 (d) 2.60 (e)2.56
34. Find the median of the following numbers 2.64, 2.50, 2.72, 2.91 and 2.35 (a) 2.91 (b) 2.72 (c) 2.64 (d) 2.50 (e) 2.35
35. From a box containing 2 red, 6 white and 5 black balls, a ball is randomly selected. What is the probability that the selected ball is black? (a) ²/₁₃ (b) ⁵/₁₃ (c) ⁵/₁₁ (d) ⁵/₆ (e) ¹¹/₁₃
36. The 6^th term of a G.P is -2 and its first term is 18. What is the common ratio? (a)-½ (b) –¹/₃ (c) ¼ (d) 2 (e) 3
37. Simplify (2¹/₆ – 1²/₃) ÷ 2 ²/₃ (a) ³/₁₆ (b) ⁷/₁₆ (c) 1¹³/₂₄ (d) 2¹¹/24 (e) 10 ²/₅
38. Simplify 56X^-4 ÷ 14X^-8 (a) 2x^-12 (b) 3X^-3 (c) 4X^-4 (d) 4X^-3 (e) 4X^-4
39. Simplify Log₁₀⁴ + Log₁₀²⁵ (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5
40. A boy measured the length and breadth of a rectangular lawn as 59.6m and 40.3m respectively instead of 60m and 40m. what is the percentage error in his calculation of the perimeter of the Lawn? (a) 10% (b) 1.4 % (c) 0.7% (d) 0.2% (e) 0.1%

 

 

 

 

 

EDU DELIGHT TUTORS 

BIOLOGY

SECTION A

1. Which of the following is not an organ? (A) Hair (b) Tongue (c) Rhizome (d) Corn (e) Heart
2. One major differences between Osmosis and Diffusion is that diffusion (a) Does not need a semi – permeable membrane (b) Does not take place in living tissues (c) Takes place only in a liquid medium (d) Takes place only in a gaseous medium (e) can not be demonstrated experimentally
3. Which of the following can be used for vegetative propagation? (a) Ginger Stem (b) Yam Leaf (c) Plantain roots (d) Sweet Potato Tuber (e) Plantain roots
4. Which of the following is a method of artificial vegetative propagation? (a) Creeping stem (b) Layering (c) Corn (d) Rhizome (e)Bulbil
5. Which of the following is not a function of the blood? (a) Maintenance of body temperature (b) Formation of Clot (c) Distribution of bile (d) Transportation of excretory materials (e) Distribution of hormones
6. Which of the following statements about the circulation of blood is not correct? (a) Deoxygenated blood flows into the heart through the Vena Vavae (b) Blood is pumped out of the heart through the aorta (c) Oxygenated blood from the lungs is carried to the left auricle (d) The Oxygenated blood enters the lungs through the pulmonary vein (e) Ventricles contract to pump blood into the aorta
7. A difference between the auricle and the ventricle of the mammalian heart is that the(a) Ventricles carry deoxygenated blood (b) Ventricles do not have outlets (c) Auricles have no Valves (d) walls of the ventricles are less muscular than that of the auricles (e) walls of the ventricles are more muscular than that of the auricles
8. Which of the following organisms respire through the surface? (a) Man (b) Fish (c) Tridax (d) Amoeba (e) Hibiscus
9. The stomata of a leaf perform the same functions as (a) Spiracles of Insects (b) Trachea of Toads (c) Pharynx of man (d) Liver of man (e) Scales of Fish
10. Which of the following does not happen during inspiration? (a) Intercostal muscles contract (b) Ribs move forward (c) Thoracic Cavity increases (d) Diaphragm Relaxes (e) Internal air decreases
11. Which of these is not an excretory product of plants? (a) Tanin (b) Gum (c) Alkaloid (d) Sweat (e)Anthocyaxin
12. Which of these is not a function of the kidney? (a) production of urine (b) Maintenance of acid base balance in the body (c) Osmo – Regulation (d) Removal of Urea (e) Production of Bile
13. In which part of Kidney does ultrafiltration take place? (a) Bowman’s Capsule (b) Distal Convoluted Tubule (c) Proximal Convoluted Tubule (d) Collecting duct (e) Afferent arteriole
14. Which of the following organs is concerned with detoxication of harmful compounds? (a) Kidney (b) Lungs (c) Gall Bladder (d) Liver (e) Pancreas
15. The hormone that promotes secondary sexual characteristics in females is (a) Insulin (b) Thyroxin (c) Testosterone (d) Oxytocin (e) Oestrogen
16. Which of the following organisms lacks a reproductive organ? (a) Chlamydomonas (b) Toad (c) Pride of Barbados (d) Cockroach (e) Man
17. The collective name for the female part is (a) Gynoecium (b) Androecium (c) Ovary (d) Stigma (e) Style
18. If the petals of a flowering plant are removed, which of the following processes is likely to be affected? (a) Transpiration (b) Pollination (c) Germination (d) Photosynthesis (e) Dispersal
19. Which of the following processes removes Co₂ from the atmosphere? (a) Respiration (b) Photosynthesis (c) Transpiration (d) Excretion (e)Combustion
20. The role of bacteria in the nitrogen cycle includes the following except (a) Fixing atmospheric nitrogen (b) Converting ammonia to nitrates (c) Converting nitrates to nitrates (d) Converting Carbohydrates to carbon dioxide (e) Causing the decay of dead organisms
21. The mode of nutrition which describes feeding habits in animals is (a) Autotrophic (b) Holozoic (c) Holophytic (d) Saprophytic (e)Photosynthesis
22. Which of the following organisms has homodont dentition? (a) Rabbit (b) Man (c) Sheep (d) Cate (e)Lizard
23. The pancreatic duct opens into the (a) Caecum (b) Ileum (c) Colon (d) Duodenum (e) Oesophagus
24. The enzyme that acts on milk in the stomata is (a) Intertase (b) Trypsin (c) Diastase (d) renin (e) Ptyalin
25. Which of the following plants is a carnivore? (a) Desmodium (b) Sundew (c) Mushroom (d) Platycerium (e)Liver wort
26. Which of the following contains a reducing sugar (a) Milk (b) Cassava (c) Grape Fruit (d) Beans (e) Plantain
27. Which of the following instruments can be used to measure relative humidity?(a) Anemometer (b) Hygrometer (c) Wind Guage (d) Barometer (e) Thermometer
28. In a food chain, each stage in the chain is a (a) Chain Level (b) web Level (c) Consumption Level (d) Trophic Level (e) Productive Level
29. Excessive loss of water from the leaf is prevented by the (a) Vascular Bundles (b) Cuticle (b) Midrib (d) Parenchyma (e) Mesophyll
30. The earthworm is important because (a) Its body is always moist (b) Each of its segment has chetae (c) It has a clitellum (d) it aerates the soil (e) it reproduces fast
31. Which of the following plant parts is not a storage organs? (a) Carrot root (b) sugar cane stem (c) Onion Leaf (d) Banana Stem (e) cassava Root
32. Oil is sprayed over stagnant water in which mosquitoes breed in order to (a) Provide landing surface for the adult (b) Prevent larva or pupa from attaching itself to the surface (c) Prevent the water from Overheating (d) Lubricate the Larva for easy movement (e) provide surface for laying their eggs
33. Termites are called social insects because (a) The nests are built by the nasute Soldiers (b) They Live together in communities (c) The queen allocates duties to the workers (d) The King and queen do mate (e) The functions of the workers and soldiers are very important
34. Which of the following organisms does not exist as a single cell? (a) Amoeba (b) Euglena (c) Volvox (d) Chlamydomonas
35. Which of the following diseases result from the deficiency of insulin? (a) Cretinism (b) Goitre (c) Beri – Beri (d) Diabetes
36. Roots hairs absorb water from the soil by (a) Diffusion (b) Osmosis (c) Plasmolysis (d) Transcolation
37. The vessels that carries blood from the heart to the lung is called an artery because it (a) Contains oxygenated blood (b) Contains more blood that the other vessels (c) Carries blood away from the heart (d) It has thick inelastic wall
38. The teeth used for tearing and cutting are (a) Canine and Molars (b) Premolar and Incissors (c) Molar and Incissors (d) Canine and Incissiors
39. Terrestrial Plants exchange gases through the following except (a) Chloroplast (b) stomata (c) Lenticels (d) Root – cells
40. The importance of a balanced diet is to (a) Maintain Constant size of an animal (b) Provide good taste in the food (c) Increase the effectiveness of digestion (d) Provide good health for an individual

 

SECTION B

ANSWER TWO QUESTIONS

1. Name four similarities found in plant and animal cells
   1. In a tabular form, list four different cells found in man and give a function for each of the cells
2. Name the two types of reproduction usually associated with organisms

2. Define the term metamorphosis
   1. Name the two types of metamorphosis that organisms undergo and mention two organisms that undergo each type
3. Stat four economic importance of insects and name an example of each of the insects involved.

3. What is pollution?
   1. Name two pollutants each of air and water
   2. State four effects of water pollution
   3. Mention four ways of preventing water pollution in an environment
4. What is balanced diet
   1. Name four classes of food other than proteins
      1. Give one example of food substance for each class named
      2. State three functions of proteins in humans

• Describe the appearance of a child with protein deficiency

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION C (PRATICALS)

Study the specimen carefully and use them to answer the following questions

1. Mention one structural similarity among specimens A, B, C, D and E
2. State the observable reproductive structure in each of the specimen A, B, C, D and E
3. In a tabular form, list the structural differences between specimen A and C
4. Mention the stages of development in F and H
5. State the habitat of F, G and H
6. State two economic importance of specimen G and H

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

                     

 

SECOND TERM EXAM

MOCK EXAMINATION

ECONOMICS

SECTION A

(1) Unity schedule

 

quantity of Goods                         Total Utility                      Marginal

consumed                                                                                    Utility

               0                                          0                                          0

               1                                          10?

               3                                          ?                                          4

               4                                          ?                                          ?

               5                                          23                                        1

               6                                          23                                        ?

 

(A) Complete the above utility schedule [5marks]

(B) Draw the marginal utility curve                   [10marsk]

(c)i At what quantity does Tu equal Mu?         [4marks ]

1. What is the value of Mu when Tu reaches the maximum

iii. What is the value of Mu as the quantity consumed increase? [2marks]

 

(iv) What happen to the value of Mu as the quantity consumed increase ?[2marks]

 

(2) The data here shows an hypothetical age distribution of the population of a town in Nigeria.

 

Sex		Age in years		65 and above
	10 and below	11 – 14   15-35
Male	1350	2275       1135		3250
Female	2650	2725       1365		2
Total	4000	X              2500		6000

 

1. from the data above calculate

(a) x, y, z             (b) The total population of the town

(c)The difference between the population of the male and female aged  14 and below

(d) The percentage of the population aged 14 an below

(e) The dependency ratio in the town

 

(3)

Commodity			commodity	Change in quantity dd
	Original price	New price		Original quantity	New quantity
Bread	15	20	Yam	150	200
Beef	25	40	Fish	1000	3,000
Butter	100	50	Margarine	250	400

 

(i) Calculate the gross elasticity of demand for

(a) Bread and yam

(b) Beef and fish

(c) Butter and margarine

 

(4) The table below shows the various possible combination of military and civilian goods produced by a country using the available resources and technology. Use the table to answer  the question that follow

Military Goods	Civilian Goods
0	200
20	160
40	120
60	80
100	0

 

(1) Draw the production possibility curve (PPC)

(2) Indicate points S and K at which production is not possible

(3) Indicates points M and N at which resources are no efficiently utilized

(4) What does the downward slop of PPC indicate

(5) Why is production not possible in s and K

 

(5)          Expected Revenue

ITEMS	AMOUNT(&MILLION)
Rent, Royalty and profit	75.00
Company income tax	150.00
Customs and excise duty	300.00
Personal income tax	80.00
Fees and specific changes	60.80
Value added tax	100

 

 

Projected Expenditure Items	Amount (& Millions)
General administration	220.00
Maintain of foreign mission	50.00
Transfer payment	65.00
Building of schools & hospitals	200.00
Road construction

 

(a) Calculate the total revenue from

1. direct taxes

• Non – tax sources

1. Determine the
2. Total expenditure
3. Recurrent expenditure

• Determine whether budget is a surplus or deficit

SECTION B          ANSWER (8 QUESTIONS}

(I) Define the following factors will affect demand for a commodity

(a) A decrease  in the price of a complement

(b) An increase in consumers disposal income

(c) A decrease in the supply of a substitution

(d) An increase in income tax

(2) State and explain the law of comparative cost advantage

(b) Give two limitation of the law as a theory of international trade

 

(3) Define market in Economics

(b) Lit the type of markets we have

(c) State any three(3) feature of monopoly

(d) explain any sources of monopoly power.

 

(4) Define Inflation and deflation

(b)What are the types of inflation

(c) Explain the ways by which inflation affects ant three functions of money

 

(5) What is production possibility curve

(b)Define  (i) peasant farming               (ii) co-operation farming

(c) Identify any five (5) ways through which government can assist peasant farming.

 

(6) explain the following National Income concepts

(a) Gross domestic product  (GDP)

(b) Gross National Product (GNP)

(c)Cost of living

(d)Per capital Income

(d) Standard of living

 

(7) What is Tax

(b) Differentiate between Tax and Taxation

(c) Distinguish between direct and indirect Tax

 

(8) What is Economic interrogation

(b) In what ways can west African benefit from Economics

 

(9)(a)What is population

(b) Define

(i) Over population

(ii) under population

(c) Under what conditions will it be advantageous for a country to promote population growth

 

(10) distinguish between

(i)Fixed cost and variable cost

(b) Marginal cost  and marginal revenue

(c) Total cost and average revenue

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

                  

 

SECOND TERM EXAM

MOCK EXAMINATION

               SS 2

COMMERCE                      ANSWER ALL

 

(1) Differentiate between industry and firm

(b) List and explain four activities of those in commercial occupation

 

(c) Give the full meaning of the following abbreviations

1. O D
2. I F
3. O. B
4. E & O. E

(2)State  the functions of an entrepreneur

(b)  What is  production

(c) List and explain all the factors of production

 

(3) The following information what to do  Jamiu & co  . Ltd for the year ended  31^st march 2006

 

 

SALES                                 12,000

Opening stock                 3,000

Purchases                         7,000

Closing stock                    2,000

Wages                               500

Transport                          400

Electricity                         300

 

from the above calculate showing all workings

(a) Cost of goods sold

(b) Net profit  % tag

(c) Ratio of humour

 

(4) What is contract

(b) Explain  (6) conditions that could lead to the termination of contract

(5) What is central Bank”

(b)differentiate between central Bank and commercial Bank

(c) State the steps involved in opening a current account

(d) Explain six (6) functions of commercial Bank

 

(6) What is capital Market

(b) State 5 reasons why Bank may dishonour a cheque

(c) Explain the following

1. Prospectus
2. share certificate

iii. underwriting of shares

1. Ordinary shares

v .Dividend

 

(7) Differentiate between privatization and Nationalization

(b) Explain what a country may choose to privatize state – owned enterprises

(c)Adama and Awa have teamed up to form partnership business , explain four (4) benefit that are likely to derive.

 

(8) Mention four (4) types of co- operative societies

(b) Give two(2) functions and two factors for each mentioned in  (2a) above

 

(9) Explain two  of the  following :

1. Marketing concept
2. Marketing Mix

• Marketing segmentation

1. Production differentiation

 

(10) give five (5) aims for establishing each of the following

1. ECOWAS
2. Informational monetary Fund (IMF)

(b) State and explain Central Bank royalties activities of commercial bank.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

              

 

SECOND TERM EXAM

MOCK EXAMINATION

LITERATURE

SECTION A                        ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

(1) all the world’s a stage’ is an example of what figure of speech

(a) Metaphor     (b) Paradox               (c) allusion         (d) personification

 

(2) Indama, Comic relief often occurs  in

(a) Comedies      (b)tragedies               (c) historical plays               (d)romantic plays

 

(3) A struggle between opposing forces in a story or plays is

(a) Denoue(b)conflict     (c) comedy (c)tragedy

 

(4)An expression from which one derives a mental picture is

(a) Paradox        (b) Exaggeration      (c) Imagery               (d) photography

 

(5) The repetition  of the same vowels sounds in line is

(a) alliteration    (b) assonance               (c) parallelism    (d) onomatopoeia

 

(6) A character in a story who narrates what happens to him or her is ________

(a) alliteration    (b) assonance               (c) onomatopoeia               (d) Parallelism

(a) A second person narrator               (b)A first person narrator

(c) An omission narrator               (d) a third person narrator

 

(7) An understatement  is otherwise  called

(a) Litotes           (b) conceit               (c) Pun                (d) Contrast

 

(8) The loneliness people live in the most  crowded  places illustrates __________–

(a) Paradox        (b)anecdote               (c)allegory               (d)parody

 

(9) a person’s life n story written by another person is ______________

(a) a commentary            (b) A biography                         (c) An Autobiography  (d) an epistolary

 

10, The term used t depict the freedom of poet with language is ___________

(a) Poetic  diction               (b)bathos            (c) graphology         (d) Poetic license

 

11. A story which explains a natural phenomena is _____________

(a) Legend          (b) parable               (c) myth              (d) fiction

12. ___________ in drama operates against a character who is aware of a situation which the audience know about

(a) verbal Irony  (b) dramatic irony     (c) satire             (d) parody

 

13. The protagonist in a novel is the same as

(a) Hero              (b) clown               (c) villain             (d) Actress

 

14. If the characters and the situation in a work of art have animals kingdom as their setting , the kingdom is referred to as ____________

(a) a lyrics           (b) fable               (c) An ode           (d) An epic

 

15. One of the literacy devices used to throw more light on a character’s present experiences is _____

(a) Suspense      (b) pun                (c) humour         (d) flashback

 

16. Which if the following is not a form of play

(a) Comedy        (b) limerick               (c) farce               Tragedy

 

17. The main difference between drama and other genres of literature is the ___________

(a) Theme           (b) Plot                (c) dialogue  and action   (d) diction

 

18.A poem which portrays a simple rural life of the common people is called ___________

(a) Carol              (b) lyrics               (c) An epic          (d) a pastoral

 

Read the poem below  and answer questions 19 and 20

“She sat down below a thorn

fine flowers in the valley

and there she has her sweet babe born

and the green leaves that grow ravely”

 

19. The poem scheme of the above extract is

(a) Abba              (b0 Abbab               (c) aabb (c) abcd

 

20. The word “babe born ” is an example  of what figure of speech

(a) Simile            (b) Alliteration         (c) Assonance               (d) personification

 

21. A poem written in humour but to praise somebody is called

(a) Eulogy           (b) An  elegy               (c) An epistolary

 

22. When a poet turns away from the main written to address an absent person or thing ,the figure of speech involved is (a) catastrophe      (b) Irony               (c) Apostrophe                 (d)Allegory

 

23. In literacy appreciation, the choice of words used by writer is generally known as _______

(a)characterization               (b)Rhythm          (c) Diction  (d)Speech

 

24. onomatopoeia is _________

(a) The repetition of the same consonant          (b)An imitation sound words   (c) words beginning and ending with the same sound      (d) The repetition of words beginning with the same sound.

 

25. pick out the odd items in the list below.

(a) Prose             (b) Drama               (c)poetry               (d)Irony

 

Read the passage carefully and answer the question which follows :  (26 – 29)

 

Last of all appeared Mr. sleary a stout man as already mentioned with one fixed eye and one loosed eye, a voice (if it can be called so)Like the efforts of a broken old pains of bellows,  a flabby surface, and muddled head which was never sober and never drunk.

26. The above passage is

(a) Humorous    (b) serious               (c) Romantic               (d)Educational

 

27. The major literary device used in describing the appearance of Mr. Sleary is _______

(a) Euphemism                (b) Antithesis                         (c) metonymy         (d) personification

 

28. The expression “muddled Head” as used in the passage means that sleary.         

(a) is an intelligent man                (b) Has a very short memory              (c) has an oval shaped head          

(d)has a very low memory

 

29. The expression underlined in the passage are example of

(a) paradox        (b) simile               (c) synecdoche                 (d) euphemism

 

30. When a reader is anxious to know what happens in the novel , the novelist has succeeded in keeping him in

(a) doubt            (b) check               (c) pain                (d)suspense

 

Read the passage below and answer questions 31 – 36

               Timo were on at the grange in its former pleasant way, till Miss Cathy reached sixteen. on the anniversary  of her birthday we never manifested sign of rejoicing , because it was the anniversary of my late mistress death. Her father invariably spent that alone in the library and walk on dust , as far as gimentron,  where he  would frequently prolong his stay beyond midnight. Therefore, catering was thrown on her own resources for amusement. This twenties of March was a beautiful spring day and when her father retired , my young Lady came down dressed for going out, and she said she had asked to have a ramble on the edge of the moors with me and Mr. Linton had given her leave , if we went only a short distance.

 

31. The figure of speech used in the words underlined is ________

(a) personification          (b) Oxymoron          (c) Simile               (d)Irony

 

32. Miss Cathy’s birthday is never celebrated as

(a) The narrators mother died the same day    (b) It was the anniversary of the death of the narrator

(c) Her father always likes to stay alone in library       (d) the family is poor

 

33. The expressions “Catherine was thrown on her own resources for amusement “means that she

(a) Was asked  not to look out for fun         (b) had to look out for her won way of enjoying herself.

(c) Had to use her money for fun        (d) was punished for enjoying herself

 

34. The above extract consist mainly of (a) Narration (b) Dialogue       (c) description       

(d) Interior monologue

 

35. The word ramble as used in the passage means

(a) Silent brooding          (b) To discuss in private

(c) Walk about freely for pleasure             (d) Talking endlessly

 

36. The expression Had given her leave means that she was

(a) allowed        (b) Abandoned        (c) discourage               (d)punished

 

Read the poem and answer questions 37 – 40

 

At dawn must T rise to till the rock

that our land has turned into

planted and nurtured and tended  on plots marshy

Our woes are bloody woes of accursed  revenges

Of the land spirits aggrieved by paltry

human respect

for the life of fellow man by his fellow.

kindred blood has counted for less than no value

Brothers wife has been wife to other brothers  brother .

communal loot has emptied our country silos.

The earth has stopped  breathing  and sighed

soldered tears  has the  moon shed

The earth was scorched at noon – ay and night

And our land has turned to hoeing rock

 

37. The theme of the poem is ______

(a) Famine and disease (b) drought and heat            (c) abomination and retribution              

(d) Sickness and death

 

38. The mood of the poet is one of ______________

(a) Recklessness              (b) hopelessness    (c) happiness               (d) loneliness

 

39. The earth has stopped breathing and sighed” Illustrates ___-

(a) Bathos          (b) climax               (c) personification               (d)paradox

40. There is a predominance of words associated with _________

(a) celebration  (b0 nature               (c) governance (D) nurture

 

               PAPER 2

SECTION A AFRICAN DRAMA

               THE BLOOD OF A STRANGER

 

(1)  Mention and discuss two () theme that can be seen in the blood of a stranger

 

(2) discuss the plot of the blood of a stranger

 

SHE STOOP TO CONQUER

(3) What moral lessons can be seen in ‘she stoops to conquer

 

(4) Compare and contrast the characters of two  characters in she stoop to conquer

 

SECTION B

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS

 

1. Discuss the following themes in the poem “the Anvil and hammer by kofi Awoonor
2. Unfulfilled expectation
3. The quest for a change

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

CLASS:  S.S.3

SUBJECT: MARKETING

 

 

OBJECTIVES

1. ___________ is the raw materials used to produce or transformed to other

product.

(A.)bread     (b Clothes        (c) Crude oil      (d) Automobiles

 

2. Products that are purchased when the needs is great are :

(a) staple     (b) Emergency  (c) impulse           (d) Direct

 

3. ____________ is the general term for buying and selling that is supported by electronics means

(a) Internet commerce           (b) Web commerce  (c) Computer commerce

(d) Electronic marketing

 

4. _____________ consist of building a market into district groups of buyer  on the basis of need characteristics , or  behaviour which might require separate products or marketing mix

(a) Product differentiation        (b) market segmentation           (c0 Market targeting      (d)market positioning

 

5. What is the most essential element in promotion.

(a) Communication           (b) Advertising           (c) Marketing           (d) consumer care

6. It is important to study hoe consumer

(a)Think, feel, reason,  and select product           (b) Dance , play and reasons

(c) Think, criticize, and achieve       (d) Play, reason and report.

 

7. Consumer behaviour is the study of except

(a) Individuals ,      (b) groups, (c) ,marketer, (d) organizations

 

8. Which of the following is a factor influencing consumer behaviour

(a) Cultural  (b) social           (c)personal  (d) demography

 

(9) Which of the following is not a  psychological  factor

(a) Anger     (b) perception  (c)m learning       (d) beliefs and attitudes

 

(10) Which of the following is not a key  element in marketing planning

(a) Target audience           (b) Situation analysis           (c)segmentation           (d)Goals

 

11. Most firms carryout marketing research because of

(a) Profit       (b) price           (c) consumerism           (d) Introduction of new products

 

12. __________ is not a form of production

(a) sampling          (b) coupons      (c) Trade – in        (d) marketing planning

 

13. When an importing country sets limits on the amount of goods m it will accept in certain product categories it is called

(a) quota     (b) barrier           (c) tariff           (d)embargo

14. A ____________ is the way consumer s perceive an actual or [potential product (a) Product idea          (b) Product image           (c)product concept

(d) product feature

 

15. If your company wee to make a product such as a suits of clothes and sold that product to a retailer , your company would have sold to the _________ market   (a) reseller          (b) business       (c) government (d)service

 

16. In marketing the last link in the channel of distribution is the

(a) consumer         (b) producer     (c) marketer      (d)None of the above

 

17. ____________ is a promotional form of trading old products for new ones at a reduced price (a) price – off (b) pricing           (c) skimming           (d)pricing

 

18. Which of the following is a goal of marketing

(a) Consumer satisfaction  (b) franchising   (c) export           (d) import

 

19. which of the following is consumer goods

(a) Bournvita          (b) Radio (c0Car         (d) None

 

20. The following is a product that is bought without any planning or research

(a) Staple     (b) impulse           (c)Emergency           (d) None of the above

21. Another name for 4p’s in marketing is

(a) consumerism           (b)impulse   (c) specially product  (d) marketing mix

22. The activities of marketing that take place outside your country is known as

(a) international marketing    (b) internal marketing    (c) Economic

(d) competitive marketing

23. market information is obtained for

market research           marketing concept      advertising           promotion

24. all but one are the four ps in marketing

(a) public     (b)product                     (c)price            (d)promotion

25. ________ are product bought by individuals and organizations for further processing or for use in conducting a business

(a) Industrial products           (b)service    (c) specialty      (d) promotional

26. Sellers that handle their own experts are engaged in

(a) Licensing           (b)Direct exporting     (c)indirect exporting

27. an example of specialty product is

(a) Bread     (b)Dress            (c)A car       (d) Food stuff

28. one of the following is a document used in international trade

(a)bill of lading      (b) ticket (c) journal

29.Another name for consignment

(a) goods    (b) transport      (c) pipeline

30. The use of pipes underground for transporting liquid and gases is called
31. transport Rail c. land           pipeline
32. The sender of goods is known as
33. consignor Consignment marketer            Consignee
34. what form of transport is used to carry bulky and heavy goods

(a.) rail                    (b). car                (c) .pipeline       (d) Air

 

33. which of the following is not a factor affecting transportation

(a). cost                  (b)speed                 (c)profit                   (d)nature

34. which of the following n is not a function of warehousing

(a)Transportation   (b) Risk bearing           (c)processing           (d) Marketing

35.__________ is not a type of warehouse

(a) Public     (b)private           (c) Bonded  (d) Strong

36. __________ is not a mineral product

(a) Copper  (b) Zinc           (c) Milo        (d) Gold

 

37. Which of the following is not a global brand

(a)Coca-Cola        (b) Toyota          (c) Procter and gamble          (d) dear mama

 

38. The fastest form of transportation is

(a) land        b)water           (c) pipe        (d) Air

 

39. Sampling is a way of promoting

(a) Debt       (b) branding      (c)sales           (d) Income

 

40. Electronic marketing is usually carried out in the

(a) cities       (b) internet           (c) Abroad           (d)Urban areas

 

 

THEORY

1. What is consumer behaviour
2. Differentiate between consumer and organizational behaviour

 

2. List the various stages of consumer buying process
3. Explain three (3) internal organizational factors in organizational buying behaviour

 

3. Define market plan

b . what is marketing research

1. what are the reasons for market research

 

 

4. What is pricing

b .explain four pricing strategies you know

 

5 What is promotion

1. list and explain five(5) form of promotion
2. define product
3. differentiate between good and services
4. explain four p’s of marketing

 

7. what is warehousing
8. List and define four (4) types of ware housing

 

8. List and explain three types of distribution
9. List four functions o distribution cahnnel

 

 

9. What is transportation?
10. List four (4) major modes of transportation and explain

 

10. What do you understand by International Trade
11. international marketing
12. List five (5) documents used in international trade

 

11.What is merchandizing

1. what is packaging
2. what is branding
3. mention five benefits of branding

 

12. What do you understand by electronic marketing
13. mention five challenges faced by service industries