JSS 1 Exam Questions All Subjects

AGRIC

Jss 1 Examination Questions

Agricultural Science

1. Dicotyledonous plants have a. four cotyledons b. three cotyledons c. two cotyledons d. one cotyledon
2. Which of these is very difficult to use if the number of pest is high a. chemical control b, physical control c. biological control d. cultural control?
3. _____involves the use of natural enemies of insect pests and weeds against them a. physical control b. chemical control c. cultural control d. biological control
4. Examples of crops that store food in their roots are these except ___a.Cassava b. potato c. Carrot d. sugarcane
5. Procurement of loan or capital for farming activity is one of functions of a farm manager A. administration B. production C. organisation D. marketing
6. Wooden and metal structures should be to prevent wearing away. (a) Painted (b) coloured (c) Decorated (d) swept
7. ___should be cleaned and disinfected after each operation. (a) Silos (b) Poles (c) Abattoirs (d)Fences
8. ___should be cleaned and kept air tight. (a) silos (b) Poles (c) Abattoirs (d)Fences
9. The chemical that can be used to prevent the activities of insects on wooden materials is called (a) sodium hydroxide (b) sodium(c) potassium chloride (d) oxygen
10. A round farm structures constructed from mud with a grass or thatch roof is (a) Barns (b) Rhombus (c) Barns (d) Silos
11. The first factor that must be considered before siting a farm is: (a) nearness to school (b) accessibility (c) availability of land (d) security
12. Protection of farm structures mean? (a) presence of security (b) protection from wind and erosion (c) protection from thieves (d) vigilante watch
13. A flat level land should be used for the school farm for the following reasons except (a) to increase fertility of soil (b) to reduce erosion (c) to reduce the cost of production (d) to promote percolation
14. The best soil type for farming is? (a) sandy soil (b) clayed soil (c) loamy soil (d) sand-clayed soil
15. Monocotyledonous plants have a. four cotyledons b. three cotyledons c. two cotyledons d. one cotyledon
16. Primary tillage is otherwise known as (a) harrowing (b) ploughing (c) ridging (d) stumping
17. Secondary tillage is otherwise known as (a)harrowing (b) ploughing(c) ridging (d) stumping
18. In farm layout, plots undergo (a) division (b) multiplication (c) digging (d) covering
19. The operation that follows tillage is (a) ridging (b) stumping (c) clearing (d) layout
20. Stumping is carried out with the following except (a)gun (b) cutlass (c) bulldozer (d) axe
21. One of the following is not a basic consideration in planting operation(a)spacing (b) depth (c) time (d) pod
22. When seeds are sown in soil, it develops roots and shoots. This is called___ (a) germination (b) seedlings (c) sowing (d) development
23. The distance between two sown seeds/plants is___(a) planting space (b) time (c) planting depth (d) planting seed
24. Some seeds are raised in the nursery because (a) the seedlings are weak (b) the seedling are green (c) the seedling love the nursery (d) so that the can get enough sunshine
25. This is the distance of the sown seed in the Soil (a) planting time (b) planting depth (c) spacing (d) number of seeds
26. Harvesting involves the removal of ——– crops. A. big B. matured C. small D. smooth
27. Harvesting tools include the following except A. basketB. knife C. harvesterD. secateurs
28. One of the effects of late harvesting is……… A. increase of harvest B. loss of product C. sale of product D. enhanced market
29. One of the reasons for processing is A. to increase the quantity of the___(a) product B. to make it scarce C. to prevent spoilage D. to increase demand
30. Methods of storage include the following except? A. use of barns B. use of shops C. use of baskets. D. use of silos
31. Which of these farming systems involve crops production? (a) ley farming (b) ranching (c) mixed farming (d) nomadic farming
32. The land is left for ……….. to years to rest in bush fallowing.(a) 3 – 5 years (b) 7 – 10 years (c) 15 – 20 years (d) 20 – 30 years
33. Which of these farming systems involves the production of crops and the rearing of animals?(a) mixed farming (b) pastoral farming (c) bush fallowing (d) ranching
34. Ranching is a form of animal production system.(a) extensive (b) semi-intensive (c) intensive (d) semi-extensive
35. In which of these farming systems is pasture grown for farm animals? (a) ley farming (b) mixed farming (c) bush fallowing (d) shifting cultivation

THEORY A

1. State two disadvantages of mixed farming.
2. What is nomadic farming?

THEORY B

1. What is storage?
2. Mention two crops whose processing starts from the farm.

THEORY C

1. What is planting operation?
2. Explain sowing .
3. Explain five basic considerations in planting operations.

THEORY D

1. What is cultural practice?
2. Define the following terms: (a) land clearing (b) ridging

THEORY E

1. State and explain two factors to be considered before sitting farms
2. Mention four uses of water in the farm.

THEORY F

1. How can farm buildings be maintained?
2. State three farm structures and state the ways of maintaining them.

THEORY G

1. Classify crop according to: (a) economic uses (b) the life cycle (c) number of cotyledons.
2. Define the following terms annuals, biennials and perennials.
3. What is management?
4. Mention and briefly explain five major functions of a farm manager.

BASIC TECH

JSS 1 Examination Questions

Basic Technology

1. What rescue operation is right for someone trapped in a vault? (a) cave rescue (b) confined space rescue (c) surface-water rescue (d) ASR
2. What do we call the rescue of people trapped in a collapsed building? (a) CSAR (b) mine rescue (c) urban search and rescue (d) confined space rescue
3. ___is used to extricate individuals from wrecked vehicles (a) Helicopters (b) Rescue dogs (c) Ambulance (d) Hydraulic cutting and spreading tools
4. Which of the following does not require rescue operations (a) collapsed building (b) fire outbreak (c) phone calls(d) natural disasters
5. _____ is the coordinated search and rescue of emergency water landings as well as people who have survived shipwreck or boat mishap (a) ASR (b) CSAR (c) Cave rescue (d) RRS
6. Identify this line. _____(a) thin continuous line (b) ruled zigzag line (c) arrow head line. (d) short dashes.
7. The type of line used in showing visible outline is (a) thin continuous line (b) thick continuous line (c) thin ruled zigzag line (d)thick continuous wavy line.
8. The shortest distance between two points is (a) curve (b) straight line (c) crooked line (d) parallel line
9. Which of the following is not a property of a line? (a)It has position and length (b)It has width and thickness (c)It has virtually no thickness (d) It may be a straight line or curved line.
10. The line that is used in showing hidden details is (a) thin continuous (b) thick continuous (c) arrow hand (d) short dashes
11. The angle that FC makes when constructed perpendicular with line AB is (a) 1800 (b) 2700 (c) 900 (d) 1200
12. The line FC is called (a) vertical (b) perpendicular (c) Horizontal (d) incline
13. Which of the following drawing materials cannot be used to construct a straight line? (a) Compass (b) protractor (c) Ruler (d) pencils
14. Angles that sum up to 1800 is called (a) supplementary (b) complementary (c) Reflex (d) obtuse
15. The line for all visible outlines is called (a) Thin continuous line (b) Thick continuous line (c) short dashes (d) Zig – Zag lines.
16. Which of the following triangles has all its sides equal? (a) Equilateral (b) Scalene (c) Isosceles (d) Right-angled
17. Which of the following triangles has none of its side equal? (a) Equilateral (b) Scalene (c) Isosceles (d) Right-angled
18. Which of the following triangles has all two sides equal? (a) Equilateral (b) Scalene (c)Isosceles (d) Right-angled
19. What is the center rule formula used to construct a polygon as well as dividing a circle into equal parts? (a) 360 – N (b) 360 x N (c) 360/ N (d) 360 + N
20. The perpendicular distance from the vertex to the base of triangles is called (a) vetoed (b) Aptitude (c) Altitude (d) Interior
21. The part of the circle that is bounded by an arc or cord is (a) segment (b) sector (c) diameter (d) tangent.
22. A straight line drawn through the centre, meeting the circumference at both ends is called (a) sector (b)radius (c) diameter (d) tangent
23. A plane figure bounded by a curved line called circumference is called——-(a) triangle (b) circle (c) quadrilaterals (d) curved line
24. Any straight line drawn across the circle, meeting the circumference at both ends is called (a) chord (b) tangent (c) radius (d) diameter
25. Which of the following can be used to draw a circle? (a) protractor (b) French curve (c) compass (d) template
26. Hardware examples includes the following except (a) Monitor (B) mouse (C) operating system (D) keyboard
27. F.M Means One of these is an example of analogue signal/device  (a) computer system (B) human voice (C) dvd player (D) plasma tv
28. The demerits of the internet includes these except a.Access to library (B) pornography (C) cybercrime (D) fraud
29. Ferrous metal are metal which contains  (a) Copper (B) iron (C) carbon (D) silicon
30. The basic material for the production of ceramics is ___a.Clay (B) humidity (C) resuscitation (D) temperature
31. A.M Means
32. Tyres is made from (a) Ceramic (B) rubbers (C) metals (D) wood
33. G.S.M Stands for
34. ____  is the degree of hotness or coldness of a body or place (a) Pressure (B) humidity (C) resuscitation (D) temperature
35. The following are software except____(A)Cedar (B) pine (C) iroko (D) spruce
36. The letter “S” in S.I.M Stand for ____(a) Server (B) subscriber (C) system (D) source
37. Bronze is an alloy of and copper ___ (a) Tin (B) zine (C) sliver (D) aluminum
38. Ceramics have been used for ages in___ (a) law (B) medicine (C) sculpture (D) politics
39. Gentian violet is in colour (a) Red (B) yellow (C) white (D) purple

THEORY A

1. Draw a circle of radius 35mm and divide it into 12 equal sizes.
2. Draw a circle and with shaded portion show (i) quadrant (ii) sector (iii) segment inside the circle.
3. Construct a rectangle of length 7cm and breadth 5cm with the aid of compass and ruler.
4. Construct a square with diagonal 5cm.
5. Define a line.
6. Draw a line AB of 60mm and divide the line into 8 equal parts. Draw line AB equals to 10cm and divide into proportions
7. What are rescue operations?
8. Explain “Vehicle extrication”
9. State the function of the following in rescue operations:
10. rescue dogs (b) ambulance

Jss 1 Examination Questions

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES (CRS)

1. prophet prophesied the birth of Jesus Christ.______(a) Isaiah (b) Jeremiah (c) John (d) James
2. The fulfillment of the promises of God revealed God as_____(a) Dishonest(b) faithful (c) Gullible one (d) unreliable
3. The name “Emmanuel” means____(a) God with us (b) God cares for us (c) God is faithful (d) the fear of God
4. According to Prophet Isaiah the kingdom of Jesus will____(a) Come to an end (b) not come to an end (c) come to an end if we are not faithful (d) show the power of God
5. We can best overcome sexually transmitted diseases by____(a) keeping our self-pure (b) yield to our desires(c) using preventive measures (d) cleaning our environment
6. The birth of Jesus took place in the city called __(a) Nazareth (b) Galilee (c) Bethlehem of Judea (d) Jericho
7. Who made a decree that census should be conducted throughout the world at that time? ____(a) Pharaoh (b) Herod (c) Caesar Augustus (d) Pilate
8. Who appeared to the shepherds at the night a child was born? ____(a) an angel (b) a Prophet (c) a star (d) a seer
9. Why was Jesus not given birth to at the inn? ____(a) the owner was wicked (b) It was too costly (c) It was full (d) the midwife was not around
10. Gold represents function. (a) kingship (b) priestly (c) prophetic (d) spiritual
11. Joseph was asked to flee from Bethlehem to ___. (a) Egypt (b) Judea (c) Jerusalem (d) Syria
12. After the death of Herod, they returned to (a) Egypt (b) Jerusalem (c) Jericho (d) Nazareth
13. At what age did Jesus accompany his parents to the temple in Jerusalem ___(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15(d) 17
14. Jesus was not accepted at city (a) Nazareth (b) Bethany (c) Ai (d) Bethany
15. A prophet is not without except in his own country. (a) place (b) honour (c) brother (d) pride
16. Jesus came from to be baptized (a) Galilee (b) Nazareth (c) Jordan (d) Jericho
17. Jesus was baptized in river (a) Nile (b) Jordan (c) Taraba (d) Tekoa
18. Jesus fasted for days and night (a) 40 (b) 30 (c) 20 (d) 70
19. The father of John the Baptist was . (a) Nehemiah (b) Heber (c) Jonash (d) Zachariah
20. John was preaching in the . (a) forest (b) bush (c) wilderness (d)neighbourhood
21. ____is the suggestion to do evil. (a) trial (b) temptation (c) persecution (d) low self esteem
22. The first temptation of Jesus was to ____.(a) Turn stone to bread (b) jump down (c) worship Satan (d) show off his power
23. Thou shall not tempt the Lord your God was said by ___.(a) Jesus Christ (b) John the Baptist (c) Satan (d) Caiaphas
24. According to Matthew’s account the third temptation of Jesus Christ was to_____(a) turn stone to bread (b) jump down (c) worship Satan (d) walk on water
25. The first temptation of Jesus Christ was to make him Messiah.___(a) economic (b) political (c) peaceful (d) geographical
26. Who was referred to as the tax collector among the twelve disciples (a) Andrew (b) Matthew (c) Peter (d) James
27. Who among the disciples betrayed Jesus Christ? (a) Simon Peter (b) John (c) Judas Iscariot (d) Philip
28. How many disciples were they in number? (a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 20
29. The following are part of the first four disciples of Jesus except¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬ . (a). Philip (b). Andrew (c). James (d). John
30. Jesus was years old when he began to teach and preach (a) 30 (b) 33 (c) 40 (d) 25
31. One of the following is the type of courage (a )Moral courage (b) commitment c. Steadfast (d)Endurance
32. Jesus was born in a ___(a) management (b) Manager (d) Manger
33. Simeon was ___ man
34. (a) righteous and useless (b) corrupted and undevoted (c) righteous and devoted
35. ____after birth, Jesus was presented to God in the temple in Jerusalem, according to Jewish tradition (a) 32 (b) 40 (c) 47
36. ____ had been promised by the holy spirit that he would see Jesus Christ the savior before his death (a) Aaron (b) Noah (c) Simeon
37. Anna was____ (a) 84 years and prophetess (b) 74 years and teacher(c) 64 years and messenger

THEORY A

1. What is the third temptation according to St. Matthew’s gospel?
2. Write the names of six out of the twelve disciples.
3. Describe the baptism of Jesus.
4. State the significance of Jesus’ baptism.
5. Describe the reaction of Jesus to the people of Nazareth.
6. “Jesus is the greatest teacher”, explain.
7. State the gifts given to Jesus.
8. What are the functions of the gifts presented to Jesus?
9. Give the account of the prophecy of prophet Isaiah about Jesus Christ.
10. What can we do for God to use us like Virgin Mary?

ENGLISH

Fill in the blank space with the most appropriate option from the list given in the bracket.

1. The man sells many books and in his book shop. ( many stationary, a stationary, much stationary)
2. The storm did damage to the house. (a, an, much)
3. The principal has bought for the science laboratory. ( equipment, much equipment)
4. He eats every day. ( egg, eggs, egg)
5. Dr. Bowen is European but Mr. Woois American. (an/an, a/a, a/an)
6. He worked for hour. ( a , an, many
7. All the following except can be found in a court of law.a. judges b. police officers c. magistrates d. moderators e. persecutors
8. A country’s Armed Forces are made up of its ¬¬¬¬ a. Army, Navy and Airforce b. Police, Army and Airforce c. Judge, Airforce and Police Forces d. Army, Magistrates and Air Force e. Navy, Army and Police Force
9. The statement ‘The accused was acquitted and discharge means that the accused was a.found guilty and set free b. found guilty but severely warned c. found innocent and set free d. found guilty and jailed e. found guilty but conditionally set free
10. The accused has against the judgment. a. written b. spoken c. decided d.register e. appealed
11. Someone complained against in a court of law is the a. lawyer’s client b. defendant c. defence d. plaintiff e. accused
12. Out of the following verbs, only is always transitive. A. describe b. sleep c. eat
13. In the sentences, she ate the bread throughout the day, direct object is a. she b. the day c. the bread
14. In the sentence, “He spoke with enthusiasm”. The word ‘spoke’ is A. a transitive verb b. a mono transitive verb c. an intransitive verb
15. Unfortunately, ‘He is now a complete gentleman’, the subject is a. fortunately b.
16. He c. a complete gentleman
17. The passive form of the sentence ‘The bad road caused the accident’ is a. The accident is caused by the bad road b. The accident was caused by the bad road
18. c. The accident had been caused by the bad road Comprehension
19. Blood is a red liquid that is pumped around the body by an organ called the heart. A healthy adult has between 5 and 6 litres of blood in the body
20. Different people have different kinds of blood. The four main types or group are O, A,B and AB but there are other rarer blood groups too.

If someone has an accident and loses a lot of blood, their life can be saved by pumping more blood form someone else’s body into them. This is called blood transfusion. Its important that patients are given blood of the right group that is, the same kind of blood that they have in their bodies ; otherwise the blood may stick together, and the patient may die.

Question

1. What is the organ that pumps blood around the body called?
2. How much blood does an average person have in his or her blood?
3. List the four main groups the human blood belongs to
4. What is blood transfusion
5. What happens when the wrong type of blood is given to a person who is short of blood?

SECTION B

22 Nigeria should not on oil alone.

trust (b) profit (c) depend (d) produce

The thief escaped the window

by (b) on (c) through (d) off

Last week, all the young men in my compound get together and

a well

dig (b) dug (c) digging (d) draw

They to the teacher and laid her complaint

go (b) went (c) going (d) gone

They at him

staring (b) starred (c) stare (d) starre

Fill in the gap with the words listed below:

Brought

Resented

Hated

Escaped

Imposed

Resumed

Died

Loved

Although everyone felt for Ogwoma for being forced to marry man she

6 , they 7 her defiance of the custom in the name of love.But because she was an obedient daughter, she reluctantly

8 the unjust violation of her human right to marry the husband of her choice.

When the husband 9 upon her 10 , she promptly, perhaps too quickly, 11 her relationship with the man she 12 . This was a taboo in the community, and 13 disagree to Ogwoma’s parents. But Ogwoma herself felt justified and fulfilled.

Write out the phonetic symbol the represents the underlined letters

Pens

Zeal

Choose the appropriate answer from the options below

These are my ………….. [a] child [b] children [c] childrens

My uncle gave me ……. Pieces of advice [a] a [b] an [c] some

I would like …………… sugar, please [a] some [b] plenty [c] an

The child of my uncle or aunt is my ….. [a] cousin [b] nephew [c] nieces

Choose a suitable word from the box below to fill each of the fifteen numbered blanks in the paragraph below

Criminal

jail

lawyers

Crime

offender

evidence

Accused

guilty

committed

Persistent

court

deterrent

Sentencing

penalty

arrest

Police officers have a very difficult job fighting —20——— when a crime has been ……21…………… they must find out the facts, and collect the……22 ,

once they have tracked down the ………23………… they have to ………24 them

and bring them to …25…………

Clever…26………….. will often be called to defend the ……27 people,

so the police have to be sure of the facts.

If the criminal is found ……28…………. He or she is punished. Young or first time ………29…….. maybe be given a warning, but ………30 offenders are sent to

……31 , often for long periods.

The death …32 Is reserved for the worst crimes. Some people say that

one should never take another person’s life, even if they have committed the most terrible crime, others say that …33………… murderers to death, act as

……34……..

Fill in the correct forms of the verb in bracket

I have never [ visit ] Lagos

I have [ sleep] when the thieves came.

I have [forget] everything you told me.

Everybody got up and [sing] the national anthem

Taiwo Johnson has [grow] alots in the last year.

He often [ fail ] sick with malaria.

SECTION B

Write a narrative essay on the topic ‘ make hay when the sunshine’

Complete the following

PRESENT

PAST

PAST PARTICIPLE

—————

Rang

——————

Run

……………

……………………

……………

…………….

Sown

Grow

Grew

……………..

Bite

………………

Bitten

…………

Lay

………………

Drive

…………..

……………….

…………

Laid

Laid

…………..

Blew

…………….

Sow

Sowed

………………

POSITIVE

COMPARATIVE

SUPERLATIVE

Bad

…………….

………………

…………

Less

…………………

…………

……………..

Most

………….

………………

Least

…………

Better

………….

CCA

Jss 1 Examination Questions

CULTURAL AND CREATIVE ARTS

1. Which one of these classes of colour cannot be derived by mixing any other colours together? a. Secondary colour (b) Primary colour (c) Intermediate colour (d) Tertiary colour
2. ___colours are obtained by mixing two primary colours equally.(a) Secondary (c) Primary (c) Intermediate (d) Harmonious
3. The mixture of two secondary colours forms a …………………colour.(a) tertiary (b) secondary (c) intermediate (d) complimentary
4. White, black and grey are ___colour. (a) harmonious (b) intermediate (c) tertiary (d) neutral
5. Colours that are directly opposite each other on the colour wheel are called___ (a)intermediate colour (b)harmonious colour (c) complimentary colour (d) tertiary colour
6. The shortest distance between two points is called ………..……..(a) texture (b) line (c) shape (d) form
7. A pigment or hue is intensified or made lighter by adding white to in order to produce a …………….(a)shade (b) tint (c) value (d) dark hue
8. A pigment or hue is disintensified or made darker by adding black in order to it to produce a …..………(a) tint (b) shade (c) value (d) light hue
9. Which one of the following is NOT an element of art and design? (a) Proportion (b)Line (c) Colour (d) Texture
10. The natural and artificial colours various objects possess are called (a)local colour (b) primary colour (c) secondary colour (d) tertiary colour
11. Textile designers make the most use of the principle of (a) emphasis(b) proportion (c) repetition (d)registration
12. In pattern making, what principle of art and designs allows a colour to have a domineering presence over other colours? (a) Balance (b) Proportion (c) Dominance (d) Repetition
13. When some art elements are given equal weight in a work of art,achieved.(a) balance (b) proportion (c)rhythm (d) repetition
14. The use of opposing, contrasting or diversifying elements in a composition thereby adding individualism and interest to such work is called (a)balance (b) repetition (c) variety (d) harmony
15. The use of closely related line, colour and shape in pattern making creates a sense of ………..…… (a) harmony (b) repetition (c)balance (d) proportion
16. The special garments and other accessories designed to be worn by the players are called ………..(a) costume (b) props (c) make up (d) None of the above
17. The elevated platform detached from the auditorium where live dramatic performances take place in a theatre is called …………(a) stage (b) auditorium (c) box office (d) None of the above
18. The creation of the visual aspect of a typical stage environment is the sole duty of the ………..…..(a) theatre designer (b) master (c) manger (d) prompter
19. Which of the following aspects of theatre design illuminates the set design stage? (a) Lighting (b) Properties of props (c) Props (d) Set
20. Another word for theatre design is ……..(a) stenography (b) scenography (c)serigraphy(d) None of the above
21. A series of steps and movements that match the speed and rhythm of a piece of music is called……..(a) gesticulation (b) dance (c) drama (d) None of the above
22. Dancing is a noble career performed by..……………………………. (a) musicians (b) dancers (c) prompters (d) None of the above.
23. The art of dancing is a sub-branch of …………….(a) fine art (b) performing art (c) literary art (d) applied art
24.  A form of dance that does not contain a plot and emphasizes a major subject or mood is called ……(a) comic dance (b) pure dance (c) dance drama (d) None of the above.
25. Dance is a medium of public entertainment. (a) True (b False (c) Maybe (d) Not sure
26. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of self-control? (a) Enhancement of one’s decision making capacity. (b) Success (c) Failure (d) Congruence
27. A person who is always in a fighting mood all the time (a) lacks self-control. (b) possesses self-control. (c) is jovial . (d) is well behaved.
28. Self-control entails the following except……(a) moderation (b) modest (c) being in a fighting mood. (d) Not being in a fighting mood.
29. Being in the right frame of mind towards others will make a person exerciseself- control at all time. (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe (d) Not sure
30. A person who is fond of using abusive words on people who offend him or her lacks (a) team spirit. (b) self – control. (c) good morals. (d) discipline.
31. ___zrefers to any form of noise, music and vibration heard through one’s ear.(a) Voice (b) Sound (c) Pitch (d) Intensity
32. The following are classes of voice except……….(a) alto (b) bass (c) tenor (d) noise
33. ………..refers to the pitch of women voice that is high. (a) Bass (b) Alto (c) Ténor (d) Soprano
34. ………..refers to the pitch of the men voice that is low. (a) Tenor (b) Bass (c) Tenor(d) Alto
35. The sound produced from the mouth of human beings in various forms is called…….…(a) intensity (b) voice (c) tone (d) pitch
36. The highness and lowness of musical sound is called ………….…(a)pitch (b) chord (c)timbre (d) intensity
37. A sound that is irregular and disorganized when heard through our ear is called………….………. (a) music (b) noise (c) Option a & b (d) None of the above.
38. The interval between the root note and the top note which comprises of eight notes is the …………..(a) 1st interval (b) 8th interval (c) 2nd interval (d) Unison
39. A semibreve is a musical note the relative value ………………………. (a) 1 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/16
40. In music, the word octave stands for the number ………….. (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 6

THEORY

What is interval?

Define sound.

list five importance of colour as an element of art

list five branches of art with explanation

highlight five element and principle of art

list 5 material needed for drawing

what is drawing?

Jss 1 Examination Questions

HOME ECONOMICS

1. A good home maker should be .
2. A. polite B. rude C. selfish D.right
3. A good home maker takes care of the .
4. A. school B. church C. home D. self
5. A good home maker should plan for the family.
6. A. False B. True C. Anyhow D. Not all the time.
7. is one of the responsibilities of a home maker.
8. Maintaining the home B. Scolding the family members C. Abandoning the duties
9. D. Neglecting the home.
10. is one of the qualities of a home maker.
11. A. Maintaining the home B. Creativity C. Mending the family clothing
12. D. keeping the home.
13. The functional area used as relaxation centre for family members is
14. A. kitchen B. dining room C. sitting room D. toilet
15. Side cupboard is a piece of furniture commonly found in the
16. A. passage B. dining room C. toilet D. sitting room
17. A set of settee is found in the
18. A. room B. kitchen C. bedroom D. sitting room
19. The functional area used for food preparation is
20. A. living room B. kitchen C. hall way D. dining room
21. There are types of kitchen. a. A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1
22. Which of the following does not belong to the group? A. Bed B. Mattress C. Tub D. Wardrobe
23. These are functional rooms except A. bathroom B. dining room C. store D. kitchen
24. The most hygienic type of toilet is toilet. A. modern B. bucket C. pit D. bowl
25. A bedroom can be used for the following except ___ A. sleeping B. keeping valuable items C. privacy D. entertaining visitors
26. A shower curtain can be found in ____a. A. modern toilet B. bedroom C. shower-type bathroom D. modern bathroom
27. .. is one of the materials needed for household cleaning. A. Brushes B. Rake C. Matchet D. Wood
28. ___ one of the cleaning equipment that uses electricity A. Vacuum cleaner B. Mop C. Brush D. Long broom
29. ___is good for cleaning carpets and rugs.A. Vacuum cleaner B. Mop C. Broom D. Cleaner
30. Brushes should be taken care of by ___A. brushing B. drying C. painting D. soaking
31. Long-handed soft brooms and brushes are used for removing from walls and ceilings.A. objects B. ropes C. cobwebs D. dirt
32. Functional areas in the house should be cleaned both and .A. daily, weekly B. daily, monthly C. morning, night D. occasional, yearly
33. When cleaning a room, it is important to open the doors and windows toA. dry the room B. air the room C. decorate the room D. open the room
34. It is necessary to shake the mattress about once a week in order to A. renew it B. make it softer C. maintain its shape D. increase its length
35. The substances which remove dirt by liquefying it and holding it in suspension are called A. solutions B. acids C. liquids D. solvents
36. One of the following can be applied to a surface to improve its appearance and to protect it. A. Polish B. Acidic cleaner C. Solvent D. Alkaline cleaner
37. is one of the materials used for holding flower during arrangement A. Water B. Scissors C. Pebbles D. Pins
38. ______adds colour and beauty to a room A. Cutlery B. Flower C. Paint D. Equipment
39. ______makes home cool and Attractive A. Decorations B. Craft C. Maps D. Arrangement
40. _____provides privacy in a room A. Furniture B. Decoration C. Curtains D. Colour
41. The right time to cut flowers for arrangement is ____A. early morning B. in the afternoon C. in the noonday D. anytime
42. The name given to the variety of textile fabric used in the house is house A. cotton B. linen C. Fabric D. fiber
43. All towels should be soft and ____A. dry B. fluffy C. absorbent D. wet.
44. _____is an example of bathroom linen.

A. Face towel B. Hand towel C. Floor towel D. Napkin

is an example of kitchen linen.

A. Glass cloth B. Placemat C. Table napkin D. Table mat

Bed linen includes all these except

A. blankets B. pillow C. curtains D. bedspread

37.. Clothes should be aired before they are

a. A. washed B. stored C. ironed D. bleached

Clothes should not be stored in a ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬

A. box B. wardrobe C. damp place D. drawer

Which of the following should be removed from clothes before storage?

A. Collars and cuffsB. Buttons and pads C. Sleeves and collars D. Brooches and pins

Clothes can be stored in all except

A. bed B. closet C. box D. suitcase

All the items that we wear with our clothes are called

A. jewelry B. accessories C. hand bags D. supplementary

THEORY

Who is a home maker?

1. List two qualities and two responsibilities of a home maker.
2. State two uses of the sitting room.
3. Mention three features common to a traditional kitchen

MATHS

Simplify (+13) – (+6)

2. (a)7 (b) -7 (c) 19 (d) 8

3. Simplify (+11) – (+6)- (-3)

4. (a)7 (b)8 (c)9 (d)10

5. 3. Simplify 5×3 x 4×7 (a) 20×4 (b) 20×10 (c) 20×7 (d) 57×10 6. 4. Simplify 10a8 ÷ 5a6 (a) 2a2 (b) 50a2 (c) 2a14 (d) 2a48

7. 5. Simplify r7 ÷ r7 (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) r14 (d) 2r7

Which of these is not a prime number (a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 7 ( d) 1 8. Express 360000 in standard form (a) 3.6 x 105 (b) 3.6 x 106 (c) 3.6 x 103 ( d) 3.6 x 104

9. Express 0.000045 in standard form (a) 4.5 x 10-2 (b) 4.5 x 103 (c) 4.5 x 10-5 (d) 4.5 x 10-6

Which of these is not a factor of 42 (a) 9 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 2

Express 50 is product of its prime factor (a) 2 x 52 (b) 2 x 5 (c) 22 x 52 (d) 2 x 5

The lowest common multiple of 4, 6 and 8 is (a) 24 (b) 48 (c) 12 (d) 40

Find the smallest number by which 72 must be multiplied so that its products will give a perfect square (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 5

The lowest common multiple of 4, 6 and 8 is (a) 24 (b) 48 (c) 12 (d) 40 15. The H.C.F. of 8, 24 and 36 is (a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 18 (d) 20

16. The L.C.M. of 12, 16 and 24 is (a) 96 (b) 48 (c) 108 (d) 24

5 men build in 10 days, how long would it take 25 men?

3 days (b) 2 days (c) 5 days (d) 10 days

A girl buys 7 pens for N 210. How would ten pens cost? (a)#300(b)#30(c)#3(d)#200

19. Fill in the gap in m: a =16:24 (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 4 (d) 6

Express 90km /hr: 120km /hr as simple as possible (a) 4:3 (b) 3:4 (c) 2:3 (d) 3:2

A factory makes N 2000 pencils in 10 days, Find its production rate of pencils per day (a) N 20 per day (b) N 100 per day(c) N 50 per day (d) N 200 per day

Calculate the simple interest on N 200 in 2 years at 4% per annum (a) N 160n (b) N 240 (c) N 16 (d) N 260

Calculate the simple interest on N 20,000 for 21/2 years at 2% per annum (a) N 10 (b) N10, 000 (c) N 1000 (d) N 2000

Find the simple interest on N 40,000 for 1 year at 5% per annum (a) N 100 (b) N 250 (c) N 2,590 (d) N 50

What is the simple interest on #70,000 for 1 year at 4% per annum (a) N 2,800 (b) N 2,000 (c)

N 2,400 (d) N 2,300

Find the simple interest on N 10,000 for 3 years at 6% per annum (a) N 1,800 (b) N 1000 (c) N 1,850 (d) N 1,200

27. What is 0.003867 to 3 significant figure (a)0.004 (b)0.00386 (c)0.00387 (d)386 28. The square root of 121/2 is (a)1 3/4 (b)3 1/2 (c)3 3/4 (d)6 1/4

29. 9852 to 3 S.F. is (a)990 (b) 9850 (c) 9580 (d) 986

30. 7.0354 to 2 d.p is (a) 7.03(b) 7.04 (c) 7.40 (d)7.13

31. 59094 to the nearest hundred is (a) 59100(b)59104 (c) 60094 (d) 60194

32. Simplify (-6x) x (-x) = a) 6x ( b) 6×2 (c) -6x (d) -6×2

33. Remove brackets from -3(12a – 5) a) 15-36a b) 15a-36 c) 15a + 36 d) 36a – 15 34. Expand (a+3)(a+4) (a) a2+7a+12 (b) a2+12a+7 (c) a2+12a-7 (d) a2+7a-12

35. Factorize abc + abd (a) ab(c+d) (b) ac(b+d) (c) ad(b+c) (d)abc(c+d)

36. Factorize 5a2 + 2ax (a) a(5a+2x) (b) 5(2a2+2x) (c) a(5x+2ax) (d)a2(5+2x)

37. Simply 8 x 109 divided by 4 x 106

(A) 809/406 (B) 4 x 1015 (C) 4 x 103 (D) 2 x 103

38. Simplify -3 + (-3) – (-11)

(A) 17 (B) -17 (C) 5 (D) -5

Simplify (-2) x (-12)

(+6)2

(A) 2/3 (B) 3/2 (C) 5/6 (D) -1/7

What is the co-efficient of ‘y’ in the expansion of (6+y) ( 3-y)? (A) 3 (B) 6 (C) -3 (D) -6

THEORY A

Expand the following:

a. (p+2q)(p+3q)

b. (5r+2s)(3r+4s)

Factorize the following a. -18fg – 12g

-5xy + 10y

THEORY B

Find the square root of 1296

a. What is 0.046783 to 3 significant figure b. 45.34672 to 2 d.p. is

THEORY C

1. Find the simple interest on the following

N 55,000 for 4 years at 60% per annum

N 25,000 for 3 years at 5% per annum

THEORY D

Find 50% of 3.5m

A bag of corn can feed 100 chicks for 12 days. How long would the same bag feed 80 chickens?

THEORY E

Find the smallest number by which 162 must be multiplied so that its product will give a perfect square.

Find the HCF and L.C.M. of the following figures 30 & 42

64 & 210

THEORY F

For each number 42,45,48,50

Write down all its factors.

State which factors are prime numbers?

Express the number as a product of its prime factors.

Express the following in standard form (a) 345000 (b) 0.00034 (c) 0.125

.

PHE

The striking games include the following except (a)Baseball (b)Cricket (c)Long jump (d)Tennis.

The activity of the Tennis game is governed by? (a) Traditional rules (b) Delegation

Doctrine (d) Rules and Regulations.

Tennis game is played by players on each side? (a) 1-2 (b) 2-3(c) 4(d) non of the above.

These games are started with service except (a)Badminton (b)Cricket (c)Table Tennis (d)Tennis.

Table tennis started in A. France B. Denmark C. Egypt D. None of the above

The following are terminologies in Table Tennis (a)ace (b)deuce (c)let (d)rally 2. A game can be won at A. 10-9 B. 13-12 C. 11-12 D. 11-9

Which of these is not a skill in table tennis? A. Serving B. Smashing C. Dribbling D. Backhand drive

The Chinese otherwise call the game A. shuttle cock B. poona C. ping-pong D. egg pouch

The International Table Tennis Federation was formed in A. Berlin B. China C. France D. Japan

The second point in tennis counts A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 30

In the game of tennis, the prolonged exchange of strokes is referred to as A. Strokes B. Rally C. Lob D. Passing

In tennis, a point after deuce for the server is called A. Out advantage B. Advantage in C. Advantage out D. Popular advantage.

Which of the following equipment is used to play tennis game? A. Bat B. Racket

C. Spear

10. D. Wicket.

What is the distance between the sidelines for doubles and singles in tennis? A. 1.30m B. 1.36m C. 1.38m D. 2.37m

School health is concerned with A. provision of employment B. provision of emergency C. provision of health services D. provision of counseling

Healthful school environment involves A. dirty environment B. provision of a clean physical environment C. health attitude D. none of the above.

Health means the total …… of an individual A. well being B. care C. sickness D. pain

Which of the following is not necessary for living a healthy life? A. health neglect

B. health practice C. health habits D. health knowledge

16. A clean environment aids a person. A. sick B. bitter C. weak D. normal

Environmental pollution is the contamination of air, water and land from man- made (a)air (b)goods (c)vapour (d)waste.

Which of these is not a cause or source of pollution? (a)plastic factories (b)Hospitals (c)Chemical plants (d)water pollution.

Effects of environmental pollution include the following except (a)hearing loss (b)high blood pressure (c)HIV (d)sleep disturbance.

When sound becomes unhealthy, it is referred to as A. melody B. bad sound C. Noise D. None of the above.

These are types of pollutants except A. visual pollution B. Thermal pollution C. School pollution D. Radioactive pollution.

Contaminants causes instability, disorder and harm to the

biological system (b)chemical system (c)physical system (d)all of the above.

occurs when chemicals are released into the soil during spill or underground leakage. (a)Air pollution (b)Land pollution (c)Thermal pollution (d)Visual pollution.

Noise pollution covers roadway noise, aircraft noise and (a)Pollution noise (b)land pollution (c)Industrial noise (d)none of the above.

Radioactive contamination covers (a)atomic searches (b)nuclear weapon search (c)reaction (d)all of the above

The soil/land pollution can be controlled by the following except (a)burning of soil (b)disallowing dumping chemicals on the soil (c)minimizing the use of insecticides and herbicides in the soil (d)public education.

Recreational activities could be …. Or …. [a] up , down [b] big , small [c] in door [d] outdoor

Which of the following is not an example of recreational activities [a] soccer [b] table tennis [c] ludo [d] none of the above

…….. can be defined as a freedom from hazard [a] safety [b] education [c accident [d] none of the above

Home accidents are also called … [a] out accident [b] domestic [c] primary [d] none of th above

THEORY A

Define environmental pollution.

State three ways of preventing environmental pollution.

Theory B

List five people involved in health matters in the school.

What is the meaning of school health program?

Theory C

What is Love?

List five types of strokes.

Theory D

Narrate the history of the game

Mention three examples of the striking games

Jss 1 Examination Questions

SOCIAL STUDIES

All the following are sources of values except A. Family B. School C. Hospital D. Mass media.

All the following factors influence our values except A. Respect B. Injustice C. Honesty D. Self control

One of the following is the importance of values A. Values promote peace and progress B. values enable us to commit crimes C. Values enable us to choose bad friends D. Values enable us to make mistakes.

Social justice as a factor that influences our values means A. We should treat people equally and fairly B. We should hate people C. We should dislike others D. We should always punish others.

Voluntary organizations include the following except A. Red cross B. Boys scout

C. Girls brigade D. Nigerian Labour Congress.

Muslims go for their pilgrimage in one of the following cities A. Mecca B. Kuwait

C. Jericho D. Baghdad.

The Christians main day of worship is A. Friday B. Monday C. Sunday D. Thursday

One of the following is not a pillar of Islam. A. Praying five times a day B. giving alms to the poor C. fasting during the month of Ramadan D. praying twice in a life time.

The Muslims main day of worship is on A. Monday B. Friday C. Sunday D. Saturday.

What name do the Igbo’s call their God? A. Olorun B. Osanobua C. Abasi D. Chineke.

11. A Christian marriage normally takes place in the A. house of the bride B. in a big hall

C. house of the bride groom D. church.

Another name for Muslim marriage is A. Nikkah B. Mikkah C. Sukkah D. Kinnah

Intra-ethnic marriage is marriage between A. people from different ethnic groups

B. people from the same ethnic group C. people from more than two ethnic groups

D. people from the same compound.

Court marriage takes place in the A. house of the bride B. house of the bridegroom

C. court registry D. church.

Polyandry refers to a marital relationship between A. a man and a woman B. a man and two women C. a woman and a woman D. a woman and more than one husband.

Muslim marriage is conducted in the A. house of the bride B. house of the bridegroom C. in the hotel D. in a town hall.

Marriage between people from different ethnic groups is known as

marriage A. intra – ethnic B. Nikkah C. inter – ethnic D. Polyandry

Marriage between people from the same ethnic group is known as

marriage A. Nikkah B. polyandry C. inter – ethnic D. intra – ethnic.

All the following are effects of lack of readiness in marriage except A. it leads to poverty B. it enhance cordial relationship between the husband and the wife C. the children are exposed to so many dangers D. it leads to separation.

In marriage, bride price is paid by the A. groom B. bride C. bride’s family D. friend of the bride.

Which of the following does not belong? A. Nuclear B. Extended C. Compound

D. Polyandry

Close and intimate relationship is a feature of A. Primary Social Group B. Secondary Social Group C. Nigeria Union of Teachers D. Nigeria Union of Journalists.

The family belongs to A. secondary social group B. primary social group C. tertiary social group D. universal social group

Living together in a family enhances all of the following except A. provision of essential needs B. protection of members C. happiness of members D. protection of anti – social behavior

Nuclear family is also known as family A. distance B. peace C. family

D. immediate

The following are gender similarities except A. males and females have the same genitals B. the essential needs of both males and females are the same C. they both go through puberty and romantic feelings D. they can play different games.

All the following professions are regarded as male professions except A. bricklaying B. carpentry C. nursing D. lorry drivers

Which of the following is regarded as the role of females in the home? A. head of the family B. women propose marriages to men C. women perform manual jobs

D. women are cooks in the homes.

One of these is not a factor that influences gender roles. A. television B. market C. parents D. educational curriculum.

The following are biological roles of women except A. women menstruateB. women carry pregnancy C. women breastfeed D. women do manual jobs

Males are stereotyped as being the following except A. caring B. uncaring C. strong D. brave.

Females are stereotyped as being the following except A. caring B. talking more

C. talking less D. more prone to tears

Allthe following are negative effects of gender stereotype except A. it encourages violence B. it kills initiative C. it does not kill initiative D. it can be discriminating.

One of the following is not an importance of gender equality A. males and females are human beings B. males and females are parties in a relationship C. it promotes violence D. it enhances justice and equality.

All the following professions are regarded as male professions except A. nursing

B. bricklaying B. carpentry C. plumbering D. truck drivers.

Theory:

A. What is gender stereotypes

B. Give examples of gender stereotypes

Mention five negative effects of gender stereotypes

Theory

Mention five gender similarities.

What are the factors that influence gender roles?

Theory:

Mention five advantages of living together in the family.

Identify the importance of good family reputation.

Theory

a. Define marriage.

b. Mention and explain five types of marriage.

Identify five purposes of marriage.