SS 2 SECOND TERM EXAMINATION

S S 2

SUBJECT: – CIVIC EDUCATION

Instruction:   Answer all questions in section A and any other 4 questions in Sections B.

SECTION A

1. ________is a body of rules and regulations through which a society is governed to maintain peace and order.

(a) programme           (b) virtue           (c) integrity        (d) law

2. There are _______forms of democracy

(a) 4             (b) 3                     (c) 5                     (d)  2

3. ____________is a system where citizens choose their representative to rule on their behalf

(a) abstract democracy (b) mobilized democracy   (c) direct democracy

(d) Indirect democracy

4. One of the following is a characteristic of democracy

(a) Indirect asset           (b) direct asset  (c) people access

(d) press freedom

5. The principle of the rule of law was propounded by

(a) Fawehinmi           (b) Blanchard   (c) Abraham Lincoln  (d) Dicey

6. One of the skills needed to presence traditions customs and beliefs is

__________(a) Mass mobilization   (b) crime   (c) stealing  (d) taxes

7. Who define democracy as government of the people by the people and for the people?

(a) Abraham Lincoln         (b) Tafawa Balewa   (c) Olusegun Olurotimi

(d) Murtala Muhammed

8. A legitimate number of a given state is called

(a) citizen               (b) servant           (c) master                     (d) civil

9. ___________ is the feeling of not being interested in something

(a) apathy   (b) Fidelity          (c) forms (d) voting

10. The act of manipulating election is called ____________

(a) election rigging         (b) apathy         (c) chaotic        (d) voting

11. All these are reasons why leaders fail to protect the interests of their followers except

(a) Revenue allocation    (b) God-fatherism           (c) greedy  (d) Free and fair election

12. The public declaration of plans, principles, programmes and agenda which political party intends to accomplish if vote into power

(a) manifesto           (b) political parties            (c) opinion           (d) charisma

13. All these are reasons why people do not participate in politics except

(a) illiteracy            (b) bad governance            (c) political system

(d) free and fair election

14. The total number of people living in a particular place at a period of time is _______________

(a)population            (b) movement (c) transportation (d) communication

15. The arm of government that interpret the law of the state is called ______

(a)  Executive            (b) Legislature   (c) Assembly     (d) Judiciary

16. [1]The universal declaration of human right was adopted by the United Nation General Assembly in  [a]  1948   [b] 1950  [c]  1940   [d] 1967

[17] How many articles do we have in UDHR [a]  40   [b] 20  [c]   28   [d]    30

[18] All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights, this is under article  [a]  3   [b] 5  [c] 7   [d] 10

[19] The UDHR draft committee was headed by  [a]  Theresa Mary   [b]  Aisha Buhari [c]   Eleanor Roosevelt    [d] Joy Chima

[20] The first cult group was formed in…….. [a] 1952  [b]  1960   [c]  1987   [d] 1990

[21] The first cult group in Nigerian campus was called  [a] black axe    [b]Eiye  [c]  OPC  [d] pyrates franternity

[22] ……….. is not a cult group  [a]  Red Devil   [b]  Th e skull  [c]  Black axe   [d] Vikings fraternity

[23] Which of the following is good for orderliness   [a]  decorum  [b]   killings   [c]   fighting   [d]   preaching

[24] Which of the following Is not a merit of orderliness  [a] fulfillment   [b] emulation  [c]   peace   [d]  decorum

[25] ……….. is not an example of constituted authority   [a]  Governors   [b]  Ministers   [c]   President   [d]   Youth leader

[26] Which of the following is among the youngest country in Africa  [a]  South Sudan  [b] Nigeria   c] Ghana   [d]  Libya

[27] The pyrates fraternity was formed by   [a] Adams Smith   [b]  Wole Soyinka  [c]  John Legend    [d] Adams Sanni

[28] ……… is one of the dangers of cultism  [a]  Death   [b]  wealth   [c]   treason   [d]  spiritual power

[29] Human rights can be classified into the following except  [a]  Political right  [b] civic right  [c]business right  [d]economic right

[30] Limitation to human right includes the following except  [a]war  [b] death   [c]curfew  [d] political demonstration

[31] Which of the following is not a type of constituted authority   [a]  Traditional   [b]  Government   [c] religious   [d] political

[32] Which of the following is not an example of orderliness  [a]  listening skills   [b] driving skills   [c] decorum    [d]  kindness

[33] No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention in exile according to article …….. [a] 4  [b]   7  [c]  9   [d] 10

[34] The United Nation National Assembly is located  in  ……………. [a]  Lome   [b] Paris  [c] London   [d]  New York

[35] The Nigerian constitution is…………… [a] unwritten     [b] flexible   [c] written [d] weak

[36] ………..are laws made during military rules   [a] decree   [b] bye-law  [c] Legal laws   [d] state laws

[37] The main function of the executive is   [a] making laws    [b]  policy formulation    [c]powers of investigation   [d] none of the above

[38]  ……………. IS not among the armed forces in Nigeria     [a]custom services   [b] Navy    [c] Army   [d]  Airforces

[39] The feelings of not being interested in political activities is called   [a] freedom  [b]  political rights   [c]  civic rights    [d]   political apathy

[40] The international court of Justice is located at where………….  [a] London   [b]  Hague    [c]   New York    [d] Paris

[41] Causes of cultism includes the following except  [a]societal decay   [b] peer group influence  [c] emotional sickness   [d] economic hardship

[42] Which of the following is a female cult group in Nigeria   [a] Real Devils   [b]  Amazon   [c] Mafia   [d] Black axe

[43] Which of the following Countries is a member of UN security Council  [a] Nigeria   [b] Egypt   [c] Brazil   [d]  United States of America

[44] Nigerian’s population is estimated to be in the range of……………….[a] 100-150 millions   [b] 200-300 millions   [c] 150-200 millions    [d] 80-180 millions

[45] The highest political post in Nigeria is ……..  [a]  Senator   [b] President   [c] Governor   [d] Oba

SECTION B

1a.      Explain the term political apathy

1. List five reasons for political apathy
2. What is political party and outline ways of how political party compete for power through elections

3a.      what do you understand by the term popular participation?

1. Define Democracy
2. List 5 duties and obligations of citizens to their communities

OBJECTIVES

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

Answer all questions

(1) In drama, comic relief often occurs in

(a) Comedies                    (b) Tragedies            (c) Historical plays     (d) Romantic plays

(2) A struggle between opposing forces in a story or play is

(a) Denouement              (b) Conflicts              (c) Comedy               (d) tragedy

(3) An expression which one derives a mental picture  is

(a) Paradox        (b) Exaggeration      (c) Imagery               (d) Photography

(4) The repetition of the vowel sounds in a line is

(a) alliteration    (b) assonance               (c) onomatopoeia               (d) Parallelism

(5) Poetry is written in-____________________ (a)paragraph     (b)chapters               (c)lines (d)scenes

(6) Many hands make light work illustrates __________________

(a) zeugma         (b) hyperbole               (c) metonymy    (d) synecdoche

(7) A person’s life story written by another person is

(a) A commentary           (b) A biography           (c) An autobiography  (d) An epistolary

(8) The term used to depict the freedom of s poet with language is

(a)  Poetic diction            (b) Bathos  (c) Graphology  (d) Poetic license.

(9) A poem in which a lone speaker seems to be addressing someone else is

(a) A pathetic fallacy       (b) verbal irony                      (c) Dramatic Irony  (d) Dramatic monologue

(10) A poem that celebrates an object, person or event is __________

(a)sonnet            (b) dirge               (c) an ode               (d)elegy

(11) An opposite of the Antagonist is  ____________

(a) An adversary              (b)A foil                       (c) An epitome              (c) A protagonist

(12) The term “Tragic flaw” means

(A ) mistake made by a hero               (b) A moral weakness in the Hero         (c) The first act in a play

(d) The prologue

(13)  _______________ is the location of the action of the plot

(a) setting           (b) narrative technique                         (c) point of view     (d) characterization

(14) The identical sound of the poem is known as

(a) Metre            (b) Refrain               (c) Rhyme           (d) verse

(15) The use of a mild expression to avoid direct statement of an unpleasant truth is known as

(a) Euphemism  (b) Hyperbole               (c) Irony              (d) Simile

(16) The anxiety of the reader to know the subsequent development in a novel is known as  _____________

(a) Conflict         (b) Fiction               (c) Love                (d)Suspense

(17) In drama, the clown creates

(a) confusion     (b) hatred               ()Humor              (d) Horror

(18) Pick out the odd items

(a) Ballad            (b) Hyperbole               (c) Metaphor     (d) simile

(19) The expression ” He is a living dead” is an example of

(a) Antithesis     (b) imagery               (c) Oxymoron    (d) Paradox

(20) One of the main feature of a dramatic play is  _________

(a) Chapters       (b) Acts and scenes  (c) rhyme            (d) Stanza

21. Many hands make light work, illustrate [a] Zeugma [b] hyperbole [c] farce

Read the stanza and answer questions 2 – 4

For days I wept and felt depressed

But then on me our bill impressed

Your love is where she looks bereft

22. The rhyme scheme is [a abab  [b] aaba   [c]  abcc
23. The lines are limbic [a]  pentamenter  [b] trimester   [c]  hexameter
24. A ballard is essentially a ……….. poem [a] dramatic [b]  narrative   [c]  pastoral
25. The lines constitute [a]  an epic  [b] quatrain [c] a sestet

Read the stanza and answer questions 16-18

Pan , o great Pan, to thee

                        Thus do we sing

                        Thou who keepst chaste and free

                          As the young spring

                         Ever be thy honor spake

                         From the place the morn is broke

                         To the place doth unyoke

26. Pen is used here as [a] symbol [b] allusion  [c] metonymy
27. The rhyme scheme of the stanza is [a]  abcabcc   [b]  ababcdd   [c]  babccc
28. The stanza is an example of [a]  appellation   [b]  elegy  [c] pun
29. A dirge is a poem sung   [a]  at a birthday  [b]  at a funeral  [c] at a wedding
30. In literature, repetition is use essentially for [a] rhyme [b]  suspense  [c]
31. Which of the following is common to all forms of literature?
32. language
33. chorus
34. action
35. narrator
36. The three major forms of literature are
37. tragedy,comedy, tragi-comedy
38. poetry,drama,folktales
39. drama,lyric,prose fiction
40. poetry, drama,prose

33. Beauty in poetry depends mainly on
34. expression and rhythm
35. length and theme
36. vowels and consonants
37. mood and verse form

34. Read the extract below and answer this question.

But the towering earth was tired of sitting in one position. She moved, suddenly, and the houses crumbled, the mountains heaved horribly, and the work of a million years was lost.

35. The predominant figure of speech in the above extracts is
36. Oxymoron
37. Metaphor
38. Simile
39. Personification

Read the extract below and answer this question.

But the towering earth was tired of sitting in one position. She moved, suddenly, and the houses crumbled, the mountains heaved horribly, and the work of a million years was lost.

36. The subject matter of the above extract is
37. earthquake
38. house movement
39. sea waves
40. storm

37. The choice of appropriate words to convey the thoughts of an author is called
38. idiomatic language
39. setting
40. figure of speech
41. diction

38. The state of mind of a poet can be described as
39. style
40. mood
41. setting
42. theme

39. Which of the following is a likely source of traditional oral poetry?
40. Theatre
41. fiction
42. books
43. songs

40. An African author who has written plays, poems and prose is
41. Wole Soyinka
42. Zaynab Alkali
43. Chinua Achebe
44. Flora Nwapa

41. In a novel, the antagonist is
42. a fully developed character
43. a flat character
44. the main female character
45. the archrival of the hero

42. The literary device in the statement – ‘Students are to come to class with their Shakespeare’ is called
43. metonymy
44. litotes
45. synecdoche
46. personification

43. The first person narrator is usually
44. the protagonist
45. a villain in the novel
46. the antagonist
47. a character in the novel

44. The first person narrator is usually
45. the protagonist
46. a villain in the novel
47. the antagonist
48. a character in the novel

45. Which of the following is closest to the novel?
46. the short story
47. fable
48. tale
49. epic

46. ”The people’s voices rutted like pigs in the mud” is an example of
47. simile
48. metaphor
49. personification
50. metonymy

47. A play on words is
48. innuendo
49. humour
50. pun
51. jest

48. A play is fully realized when it is
49. studied
50. memorized
51. acted
52. read

49. An epitaph is
50. poem of lamentation
51. a poem of fourteen lines
52. an inscription on a tomb
53. the life history of an author

50. The essential function of a tragedy is to make people
51. laught at mankind
52. think and feel more deeply
53. think and laugh
54. know their enemies

THEORY

1a.  Explain drama

1b   Write five features of Drama

1c  Briefly explain  five elements of drama

2. Narrate the plot of the Novel Blood Of a Stranger

3a. Crisply explain Poetry

3b.  Explain five types of poetry

4. Discuss in details the dreams of the main characters in the play A Raisin in the Sun

5.Consider the view that the play exposes the Colonialist exploitation of Africa—-Blood of a Stranger

1. Consider the importance of the check in the play —-A Raising in the Sun

ENGLISH STUDIES  OBJECTIVES                                              S S 2

From the words lettered A to D below each of the following sentences, choose the word or group of words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word as it is used in the sentence

1. Cain was a perpetual source of trouble in the household.(a) increasing (b) never-ending (c) consistent (d) frequent

2. The mother attempted to entice the children with the promise of biscuits (a) tempt (b) trick(c) deceive (d) enchant

3. The two brothers were identical in character(a) similar (b) alike (c) indifferent (d)comparable

4. He was regarded as a man of remarkable modesty(a) reserved (b) patience (c) humility (d) simplicity

5. He inspected the materials before sending them to shop. (a) received (b) examined (c)viewed (d) saw

6. Tolani could not conceal the truth from her mother (a) reveal (b) remove (c) doubt (d) hide

7. She claimed that her husband had beaten her. (a) reported (b) narrated(c) asserted (d) announced

8. The journalist refused to divulge the source of his information (a) deny (b) inform (c) disclose (d) confirm

9. The manager was appalled by the attitude of some the workers. (a) convinced (b) disappointed (c) happy (d) depressed

10. He employed illegal methods to earn money and became very rich (a) unlawful (b) clever (c) modest (d) proper

Choose the word that is nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word in the sentences below

11. To encourage productivity we must reward industry and ______ laziness (a) withhold (b) withdraw (c) punish (d) oppose

12. I took the drug to relieve my headache only for it to _____ my condition(a) alleviate (b) provoke (c) abate (d) aggravate

13. An optimist wears a smile most of the time but ______ goes about with a long face (a) pacifist (b) an occulist (c) a pessimist (d) a pessimist

14. While Adjoa is attentive to her studies, Kofi is ______ (a) curious (b) negligent (c) punctual (d) realistic

15. Tell Chike something confidential and he makes it ______ the next minute (a) personal (b) public (c) popular (d) private

16. You will succeed fairly well with adolescents if you coax rather than ____ them(a) love (b) punish (c) dislike (d) coerce

17. You will make a good counsellor by listening to your clients rather than ____ them(a) offending (b) ignoring (c) mishandling (d) threatening

18. The governor declined to give audience to the journalist (a) accepted (b) forge (c) ignored (d) refused

19. We expected the market woman to accept our offer; instead she ____ it (a) rejected (b) dismissed (c) denied (d) abandoned

20. Rachel was perturbed by her father’s illness but her sister remained ______(a) tranquil(b) unaffected (c) disturbed (d) silent

From the options A-D, choose the correct interpretation to the underlined expression in the sentence below

21. Hit the nail on the head in your response means (a) tell a lie (b) nail your head (c) expose the nail (d) say the real thing

22. Her father turned a cold shoulder to her when she was young. This means (a) neglected her completely (b) helped her greatly (c) did not see her in the cold (d) saw her shoulder cold.

23. He has been sick since last week and now he is a shadow of his former self. This means (a) looks like a shadow (b) is thin and weak (c) appears strong and healthy (d) has changed a little

24. His father cautioned him but he turned a deaf ear. This means he—— [a] closed his ears [b] abused his father [c] changed his ways [d] refused to listen.

25. The peace meeting nipped the crisis in the bud. This means that _______ (a)the meeting was deadlock (b) there was disagreement (c)the crisis was averted (d)the crisis escalated despite the meeting

26. It is alleged that the accountants doctored the accounts of the company. This means that the accountants ____

(a) called in the company doctor

(b) falsified the accounts

(c) became sick

(d) improved the accounts of the company

PASSAGE A

Sandra and John had to share the same house because of __27___ difficulties. After some time, they found themselves __28_and fell in love. They then decided to ___29__ their relationship. Sandra _30___ her boyfriend to her parents, who approved of their getting _31___. John in turn took his __32___ to his parents. They too gave their blessing to the relationship and the __33___ day was fixed. Both families then set about preparing for the great day. There was a large attendance that day and the __34___ priest advised the ____35__to remain___36___ to each other all their lives and never___37___. A grand ___38___ was held during which friends and relatives showered ____39___ on them. The newly-wed then left for their __40__.

A            B                 C           D

27. Accommodation residence house rent

28. Comparable adorable compatible admirable

29. Co-operate join unite marry

30. Introduced disclosed revealed invited

31. Connected engaged admitted accepted

32. Companion fiancée partner colleague

33. Unification blessing marriage wedding

34. Praying presiding officiating celebrating

35. Lovers friends couple two

36. Withdrawn close loving faithful

37. Collapse divide divorce break

38. Celebration reception party get-together

39.Gifts prizes valuables offerings

40. Holiday retreat leave honeymoon

TEST OF ORALS

Choose the word that has the same vowel or sound as the one represented by the underlined letter.

41. How (a) low (b) surd (c) plough (d) rock

42. met (a) eight (b) hate (c) at (d)says

43. seat (a) sit (b) cite (c) set (d) key

44. chair (a) care (b) tar (c) here (d) aim

45. tyrant (a) libel (b) typical (c) year (d) weird

46. about (a)boat (b) fable (c) candle (d) doctor

47. people (a) quay (b) leopard (c) shone (d) pip

Choose the word that has the same consonant sound as the one represented by the underlined letter.

48. cough (a) bought (b) love (c) dough (d) rough

49. watch (a) character (b) stomach (c) ritual (d) champagne

50. vain (a) physics(b) faint (c) vest (d) pain

51. get (a) ghastly (b) gesture (c) engine (d) neighbor

52. comb (a) home (b) rugby (c) bubble (d) bright

53. thing (a) thin (b) song (c) bin (d)tin

54. seize (a) sees (b) cease (c) rush (d) talks

55. castle (a) bustle (b) chuckle (c) dazzle (d) missile

Choose the word that contains the sound represented by the given phonetic symbol.

56. /ei/ (a) aisle (b) eat (c) wait (d) dirt

57. /dЗ/ (a) just (b) ghost (c) dose (d) dogged

58. /i:/ (a) bee (b) height (c) third (d) sit

59. /j/ (a) you (b) just (c) wedge (d) ditch

60. /v/ (a) phase (b) orphan (c) off (d) of

SECTION B: COMPREHENSION PASSAGE

INSTRUCTION: ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION.
Chief Ibezim and the District officer were good friends. Ibezim was the Chief Priest of Ani, the earth goddess, in Ndiuzo and although the District officer was stationed in far-away Umueke and the Chief Priest by his calling should not travel out of Ndiuzo, their friendship remained as solid as a rock.

They became friends after Ibezim had testified before the District Officer in the land dispute between Ndiuzo and Umueke. He was the only man to testify against his own people in that dispute, and had struck the District Officer as an honest man who was telling the truth.

This was what earned Ibezim the admiration and friendship of the District Officer. Consequently , the District Officer advised him to send his son to the new school and the new religion that held out so much promise of positive change in the future. And when the system of indirect rule necessitated the appointment of a warrant chief at Ndiuzo, the District Officer also promptly thought of his honest friend as the most suitable candidate.

On the other hand, Ibezim’s testimony in the land dispute earned him the wrath of many of his own people. They not only held him responsible for their loss of the disputed land but also resented his friendship with the District Officer and his patronage of the new education and religion, which were threatening to erode the old ways of the land. So, when the District Officer wanted Chief Ibezim at Umueke, and he sought to confer with his people on what to do, his detractors quickly turned their backs on him and left him alone in his dilemma. Some even secretly hoped that he was going to be arrested and detained.

After a long period of hesitation, Ibezim finally decided to break with tradition and go to Umueke. The times were changing and he was sure the earth goddess would understand and condone his going away from the village.

When he came back, those who had wished him the worst got the shock of their lives. They now had a new Warrant Chief to rule over them.

Questions

a. What had earned Chief Ibezim the District Officer’s friendship?

b. State two ways in which Ibezim benefitted from his friendship with the District Officer.

c. Give two reasons why the villagers were unhappy with Chief Ibezim

d. State the dilemma in which Chief Ibezim found himself

e. “ …Ibezim finally decided to break with tradition…”. What tradition is meant here?

f. “When he came back…” (i) What grammatical name is given to this expression (ii) What is its function as it is used in the sentence?

g. “…as solid as a rock”. What figure of speech is contained in this expression?

h. For each of the following words, find another word or phrase that means the same and can replace it as it is used in the passage:

(i) Calling (ii) consequently (iii) promptly (iv)wrath (v)detractors (vi) condone

SUMMARY A

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question on it.

‘Impure water can be purified in several ways. The simple way is by filtering. Large quantities of water can be filtered using a clean white sheet of cloth folded several times. Another way is to prepare a simple filter bed. This kind of bed helps to remove solid particles from water. To make water safer for drinking, chemicals are added to kill harmful micro-organisms. An example is chlorine. The best way to get pure water is by distillation. This involves boiling the water. The steam produced is condensed by cooling to form pure water.

(a)In three sentences, one for each, state the ways impure water can be purified

SUMMARY B

The New Stone Age lasted for about 10,000 years. During this time, men became most skilled in the fashioning of stone implements. The men of the Old Stone Age had merely chipped their pieces of stone into the required shape but in the New Stone Age, great advances were made. It was found that if you press one stone against another, you could flake off small pieces and obtain a finer edge than mere chipping gave. So, men learnt to grind and polish their stones, thus giving the finest edge of all. This method of grinding is still in use at the present day, as it can be used for our modern metal implements just as it was used thousands of years ago for stones and flints.

Neolithic men also learnt to fasten handles much more skillfully; they found that holes bored through their stones were of great assistance in this respect.

Further advances were made at this time which from some point of view were more important than the discovery of grinding.

Man learnt to tame and domesticate certain animals, too. The dog was probably the first friend of man; it would be useful when he went hunting. Other animals followed; horse, cattle and sheep. Why bother to hunt them when they could be kept in flocks and herds? This led man to follow a somewhat more settled life as he would stay in those places where the pasturage was good. But he was still a wanderer, or a nomad, going from place to place in search of grass.

Man did not finally give up his nomadic life till he learnt to cultivate the ground and grow crops. This also he discovered at this time. How? We can only guess.

1. In five sentences, one for each, state the advances made by man in the New Stone Age.

SECTION C :

Answer only one question from this section.

Your answer should not be less than 300 words long.

1. You have spent about six weeks in your new school. Write a letter to your father telling him about your experiences so far.

2. Write an article for publication in your school magazine on ‘The dangers of keeping bad company in school’.

3. You have been invited to lead the motion in a school debate for or against the motion that ” Violent video games should be banned”

4. Activities such as debates, drama and excursions are now rare in schools in your country. As the Senior Prefect, write a letter to your Principal suggesting the revival of these activities and pointing out what students stand to gain from taking part in them.

5. Write a story to illustrate the saying: “where there’s a will, there is a way”

CLASS:    S S 2

SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY

1. What is the electronic configuration of sodium?

1S25²2P⁶35²                  (b)15²25²2P⁶35²                             (c)15²25²2P⁶35¹

(d) 15²25²2P⁶35⁰       (e) 15²2P⁶35²3p⁶45¹

2. Which of the following statements is true?

(a)An increase in temperature increases number gas molecules.

(b)Increase in temperature does not affect kinetic energy

©Increase in temperature is proportimal to volume

(d) decrease in pressure decrease number of gasmol.

3. An element is said to be electronegative if

a.If is an halogen

b.If is an Alkali earth metal

c.If is an Alkali

4.What is the consequence of increasing the equilibrium reaction? Zn0(g) +theg = Zn (g) + H₂0(L)

a.Equilibrium is driven to the left

b.Equilibrum is driven to the right

c.There is no  effect

d.More Zn0(s) is produces

5. An isotope has an atomic number of 17 and a mass number of 36, which of the following gives the correct number of neutron and protons in an atom of the isotope?

Neutrons                 Protons

A               53                17

B               17                36

C              19                            17

D              36                           17

Use this information to answer the following questions

Four elements, P,Q,R,S, have atomic number 4,10,12 AND 14 Respectively.

6.Which is a notable gas  a. P  B. Q   C. R   D.  S

7.Which is an ALKALI-METAL  a.  P  b.  Q  C. R   d.  S

8.Which is an ALKALI- EARTH  METAL  A.  P  B.  Q  C.  R   D.  S

9. The element with electronic configuration 1s²,2S²,2P³ is a.  oxygen   b.  Chlorine   c.  nitrogen    d.  calcium

10. How many electron are in L shell a.  2  b.   5  c.  8  d.  16

11. Which of the following reaction is endothermic
12. C_[s] + O_{2 [g]} —  CO_2[g]  
13. CaO(s) + H₂O© → (a{OH]₂cs)

c.Ccs = H₂0 → C0(g) = H2(g)

1. HCIcag) + Na0Hcag) →NaCIcag0 + H₂0©

12.A catalyst speed up the rate of chemical reaction by

a.Taking part in the reaction

b.lowering the activation energy of the reaction.

c.increase the heat content

d.increase the activation energy

13. The electronic configuration of two atoms X and Y are as follows:

X –IS²25²2P⁶3S²

Y- IS²25²2P⁶3S²3P⁶4S²

Which of the following statement is correct about the position of elements  X and Y in the periodic table

a.X belongs to group 1,Y belongs to period 2

b.X belongs to group 1.Y belongs to period 1

c.X belongs to group 2,Y belongs to period 1

d.X belongs to group 3,Y belongs to period 2

14. The electronic configuration 1S² 2S² 2P⁶ 3S² 3P⁶ is that  of a. noble gas  b.       Group 11 element c.group 3 element d.  group vi  element

15. Which of the following statements is not correct a. diatomic  b.  good oxidizing agents  c.  Highly electronegative  d. have high electron affinity

16. An element whose atomic number 19 has the electronic configuration
17. IS²25²2P⁶35²3P⁷

b.15²25²2P⁶35²3P²3P⁶3d1

c.1S²25²2P⁶3S³3P⁶

d.IS²25¹2P⁶35²3P⁶45²

17. Chlorine is used in water treatment as   a. a germicide  b.  decolorizing agent  c.an antioxidant  d.  a coagulating agent
18. The valency of chlorine is a.  -1  b.  -5  c.  -3  d.  +1

19. Isotopy is observed in which of the following element a. chlorine  b.  carbon  c.  oxygen  d. fluorine

20. The position of  an element on the periodic table is determined by its    a.  its density   b.  its atomic radius  c.  atomic number  d.  neutron number

21. What is the molar mass of alkyne with the formula CXH14 [H=1  C= 12]      a. 86g  b.92g   c.   98g     d.    110g   e.  112g

22. Which of the following is not a separation techniques

a.distillation

b.propiation

1. chromatography
2. distillation

23. Which of the following is not an halogen a. silicon  b.  fluorine  c.  astatine  d.  bromine  e.  iodine

24. An atom X consist of 6 protons, 6 electrons and 7 neutrons, Which of the following representation of atom is correct

(a)¹³₆X

(b)¹³₇x

(c)¹⁹₆   X

(d)¹⁹₇ X

25.The following atoms of carbon ¹²_6C,¹³_{6C  and} ¹⁴_6C can be described as   a.

allostropes  b.  isomas  c.  isotopes  d. isotones

26. How many electrons are there in ₄Be²⁺ a. 2 b.  4   c. 5  d. 6

27.An atom of an element X gains two electrons.The symbol of the ion formed is  a. X  b. X+ c. X^{2+   D}  d.X^2-

28.In the periodic table,all the elements within the same group have the same.

A.number of neutron

1. number of valency electron
2. numbers of isotopes
3. atomic number

29.In the periodic table,alkaline earth metals can be found in group

1. 1
2. 11
3. vi
4. vii

30.Which of the following instruments is used in detecting the presence of radiation

1. cathode ray tube
2. Greiger-Muller Counter c.

Mass spectrometer

1. X-ray tube

31.Which of the following elements is a metalloid  a.  carbon  b.  oxygen  c.  silicon   d.  sodium

32.The shape of graphite crystal is  a.  tetrahydra  b.  pyramidal  c.  hexagonal  d. octahedral

33.Which of the following ions has the electronic configuration 2,8,8   a. Na+

b.Mg²⁺   c. F  d. Cl^—

34.An element with electronic configuration of 1S,2S,2P would have the combining power of  a.  0  b.  2  c.  6  d.8

35.Which of the following has the electronic configuration; 1S 2S 2P 3S 3P[Na,Al,N,S]  a.0  b. 2  c.  6  d.  8

36.Find the number of neutons in an atom represented by ⁴⁶₂₁ X

1. 21 b.    24     c.  45   d.  66

37.The activation energy of a reaction can be altered by  a.  adding reduction agent  b.  applying a higher pressure  c. using a catalyst   d. changing the temperature

38.The phenomenon observed when particlesof colloidal solutionblock the part of light rays and scatter them is known as    a.diffusion   b.  tyndal effect   c.dialysis  d. Brownian movement

39.Which of the following substances causes the depletion of the ozone layer in the atmosphere  a. CO₂  b.  Chloroform carbon  c.Sulphur [iv]oxide  d. hydrocarbon

40. A consequence of global warming is a. air pollution  b.  water pollution  c.  Increased humidity   d.  Flooding

CLASS:    S S  2

SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY THEORY

SECTION A

ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

1a, What is the allotropes of carbon

b.Name two products of destructive distillation of coal and state one use of it.

1. ^a _p X ^r _p X

1.Give the relationship between the two atoms

2.state the difference between them

3.what phenomenon is illustrated above

2a.State three types of separation techniques?

(b) Write the electronic configuration of ₃₀Zn

©what is the common name given to the group vii elements

3copy and complete this table

(b)The electronic configurations 0f atoms of the elements A,B,C,D are as follows:

(A)1S² 25²2P²

(b)1S²25¹

©IS²25²2P¹

(d)IS²25²

State which of the elements is

(i)Divalent

(ii)Belong to group III the period table

(iii)Is an Alkali earth metal

1. Define isotopy and Allotropy
2. Define the following

(a) Atom                (b) Molecule                (c)Valency             (d)compound

(b) List three differences between chemical and physical change

©Differenciate between an acid and Alkali

(5)Write the characteristics of

(i) Electrovalent elements

(ii)Alkali earth metals

(b)State the lechatelier’s principle

©State and explain three factors that affect rate of reaction

SECTION B

Answer one question in this part

(6)Define mole, what is a molar solution

(b)State and explain three factors that affect equilibrium

©What is Avogadro’s constant

(7)Define relative molecular mass

(b) Write the equilibrium constant for this equation

H_{2(g)  +} 0_2(g→ H₂0_(c)

©Define Acid Rain

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

CLASS: SS2 &SS3

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS

THEORY

1. If 9 ^{2x +1} = Find x
2. Without using Mathematical Tables, evaluate
3. 2. Solve the following pair of simultaneous equations 2x + 5y = 6½

5x – 2y = 9

1. If Log₁₀^{(2x +1)} – Log₁₀ ^{(3x -2)} = 1, Find x

3a. The angle of a sector of a circle radius 7cm is 108⁰. Calculate the perimeter of the sector. (Take π= 22/7)

300. A boat is on the same horizontal level as the foot of a cliff, and the top of the cliff is 30⁰. If the boat is 120m away from the foot of the cliff, find the height of the cliff. Correct to three significant figures.
301. In a game, a fair die is rolled once and two unbiased coins are tossed once. What is the probability of obtaining 3 and a tail?
302. A box contains 10 marbles, 7 of which are black and 3 are red. Two marbles are drawn one after the other without replacement. Find the probability of getting
303. A red, then a black marble
304. Two black marbles
305. If 17x = 375 ²– 356², find the exact value of x
306. if 4^x = 2^½ X 8, find X.

71. The sum of the first 9 terms of an A.P is 72 and the sum of the next 4 term is 71. Find the A.P

Calculate the area of the shaded segment of the circle shown in the diagram (Takeπ = 22/7)

1. A tin has radius 3cm and height 6cm. find the
2. total surface area of the tin
3. Volume in litres of liquid that will fill the tin to capacity, correct to two decimal places (Takeπ = 22/7)

7. Copy and complete the following table for the relation y = 5/2 + X – 4X²

2. Using a scale of 2cm to 1 unit on the X axis and 2cm to 5 units on the y-axis, draw the graph of the relation for -2.0 ≤ X ≤2.0
3. What is the maximum value of y?

from your graph obtain the roots of the equation 8x² – 2x – 5 =n 0

8a. The distribution of junior workers in an illustration is as follows:

Clerks          –       78

Drivers          –      36

Typists           –      44

Messengers  –       52

Others          –       30

Represent the above information by a pie chart

1. The table below shows the frequency distribution of marks scored by 30 candidates in an aptitude test

Find the mean score to the nearest whole number

9. Three towns P,Q and R are such that the distance between P and Q is 50km and the distance between P and R is 90km. if the bearing of Q from P is 075⁰ and the bearing of R from P is 310⁰ , find the
10. Distance between Q and R,
11. Bearing of R and Q
12. The table below shows the weekly profit in naira from a Mini- Market

1. Draw the Cumulative Frequency graph of the data
2. From your graph, estimate the
   1. Median ii. 80^th Percentile     iii. What is the modal weekly profit?

OBJECTIVE

1. Find (101₂)² expressing the answer in base 2(a) 10101 (b) 11001 (c) 10010 (d) 11101 (e) 10110
2. If 3 children share ₦10.50 among themselves in the ratio 6:7:8, how much is the largest share?(a) ₦ 3.00 (b) ₦3.50 (c) ₦4.00 (d) ₦4.50 (e) ₦ 5.00
3. Express 0.000834 in standard form(a) 8.34 x 10^-4 (b) 8.34 x 10^-3 (c) 8.34 x 10³ (d) 8.34 x 10⁴ (e) 8.34 x 10⁶
4. Simplify 0.027^-1/3(a) 3¹_/3 (b) 3 (c) 3/10 (d)1/3 (e) 1/9
5. Given that log^a₂ = log⁴₈ , Find a(a) 2^1/2 (b) 4^1/3 (c) 4^2/3 (d) 2^2/3 (e) 2³
6. By selling some crates of soft drinks for ₦600.00, a dealer makes a profit of 50%. How much did the dealer pay for the drinks?(a) ₦1,200.00 (b) ₦900.00 (c) ₦450.00 (d) ₦400.00 (e) ₦200.00
7. Find the nth term Un of the A.P; 11, 4,-3, ­­­­­­_______(a) un= 19 + 7n (b) un= 19-7n (c)= 18-7n (d) un= 18+7n (e) un= 17-7n
8. If 16/9, X, 1, y are in Geometric Progression (GP). Find the product of X and Y (a) 9/16 (b) ¾ (c) 1 (d) 4/3 (e) 16/9
9. If R = { 2,4,6,8} and S= { 1, 2, 3, 4, 8}, the RUS equal (a) { 1,2,4,6,7,8} (b) {1,2,4,7,8} (c) {1,4,7,8} (d) {2,6,7} (e) {2,4}
10. In the diagram below, the shaded portion is (a) P’nR (b) QnR (c) P’nQnR (d) (PuQ)’nR (e) (PnQ)U(P’nR)
11. Find the values of X for which the expression is undefined 6x-1x2 – 4x-5 (a) +4 or +1 (b) -5 or +1 (c) -5 or -1 (d) +5 or -1 (e) +4 or -1
12. Which of the following could be the inequality illustrated in the sketch graph below? (a) y≥-2x + 1 (b) y ≤ -3x + 3 (c) y < 3x _2 (d) y ≤ x +3 (e) y ≥ 3x + 2
13. Solve the inequality 13(2x – 1)<5 (a) x< -5 (b) x<-6 (c) x<7 (d) x< 8 (e) x<16
14. What is the smaller value of X for which x² – 3x + 2 = 0 (a) 1 (b) 2 9c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5
15. Factorize the expression X(a-c) + y(c-a) (a) (a-c)(y-x) (b) (a-c)(x-y) (c) (a+c)(x-y) (d) (a+c)(x + y) (e) (a-c)(x+y)
16. Solve the equation 3x² + 25x – 18 = 0 (a) x = -3 or 2 (b) x = -2 or 3 (c) x =-2 or – 9 (d) x = -9 or 2/3 (e) -2/3, 9
17. Solve the equation (x +2 )(x – 7) = 0 (a) x = 1 or 8 (b) x  = 2 or 7 (c) x = -4 or 5 (d) x =-3 or 6 (e) x = -5 or -2
18. Solve the following simultaneous equations: X +Y = 3/2, X- y = 5/2 and use your result to find the value of 2y + x (a) -2 (b) -1 (c) ½ (d) 1 (e) 3 ½
19. The diagonals AC and BD of a rhombus ABCD are 16cm and 12cm long respectively. Calculate the area of the rhombus. (a) 24cm² (b) 36 cm² (c) 48 cm² (d) 60 cm² (e) 96 cm²
20. A water tank of height ½ m has a square base of side 1 ½ m. if it is filled with water from a water tank holding 1500 litres, how many litres of water are left in the water tanker? (1000 Litres = 1m³) (a) 37.5 Litres (b) 375 Litres (c) 3750 Litres (d) 37500 Litres (e) 375000 Litres

A cylindrical container closed at both ends, has a radius of 7cm and height cm.

Use this information to answer question 21 and 22 (Take π = 22/7)

21. Find the total surface area of the container (a) 35cm³ (b) 154 cm³ (c) 220 cm³ (d) 528cm² (e) 770 cm²
22. What is the volume of the container (a) 35cm³ (b) 154 cm³ (c) 220 cm³(d) 528 cm³ (e) 770 cm³
23. Find the total surface area of a solid circular cone with base radius 3cm and slant height 4cm (Take π = 22/7) (a) 37 ⁵/₇ (b) 66cm² (c) 75 ³/₇ cm² (d) 78 ²/₇ cm² (e) 88cm²
24. A hollow sphere has a volume of K cm³ and a surface are of K cm². Calculate the diameter of the sphere (a) 3cm (b) 6cm (c) 9 cm (d) 12 cm (e) More information is needed
25. A 120^o sector of a circle of radius 21 cm is bent to form a cone. What is the base radius of the cone? (a) 3 ½ cm (b) 7 cm (c) 10 ½ cm (d) 14 cm (e) 21 cm
26. The angle of a sector of a circle is 108^o. if the radius of the circle is 3 ½ cm, find the perimeter of the sector (a) 6 ³/₅ cm (b) 6 ⁴/₅ cm (c) 7 ¹/₁₀ cm (d) 10 ²/₅ cm (e)13 ³/₅cm
27. In the diagram below, AO is perpendicular to OB. Find X (a) 7.5^o (b) 15⁰ (c) 22.5⁰ (d) 30⁰ (e)38.6⁰

28. In the diagram above, PQ is parallel to TU, < PQR = 50⁰, <QRS = 86⁰ and < STU=64⁰. Calculate the value of x (a) 136⁰ (b) 120⁰ (c) 108⁰ (d) 100⁰ (e)96⁰
29. If Log ₁₀^x = 2.3675 and Log ₁₀^y = 2.9738, what is the value of x + y, correct to three significant figures? (a) 0.117 (b) 0.118 (c) 0.903 (d) 0.944 (e)0.946
30. Without using tables, find the value of sin200cos700+ cos250sin650 (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) -1 (e) -2
31. In the diagram below, <PRQ = 90⁰, <QPR = 30⁰ and |PQ| = 10cm. find y (a) 6cm (b) 5 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 3 cm (e)2 cm

32. What is the mode of the numbers 8,10,9,9,10,8,11,8,10,9,8 and 14? (a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 11 (e) 14
33. The mean of 20 0bservations in an experiment is 4, if the observed largest value is 23, find the mean of the remaining observations (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2.85 (d) 2.60 (e)2.56
34. Find the median of the following numbers 2.64, 2.50, 2.72, 2.91 and 2.35 (a) 2.91 (b) 2.72 (c) 2.64 (d) 2.50 (e) 2.35
35. From a box containing 2 red, 6 white and 5 black balls, a ball is randomly selected. What is the probability that the selected ball is black? (a) ²/₁₃ (b) ⁵/₁₃ (c) ⁵/₁₁ (d) ⁵/₆ (e) ¹¹/₁₃
36. The 6^th term of a G.P is -2 and its first term is 18. What is the common ratio? (a)-½ (b) –¹/₃ (c) ¼ (d) 2 (e) 3
37. Simplify (2¹/₆ – 1²/₃) ÷ 2 ²/₃ (a) ³/₁₆ (b) ⁷/₁₆ (c) 1¹³/₂₄ (d) 2¹¹/24 (e) 10 ²/₅
38. Simplify 56X^-4 ÷ 14X^-8 (a) 2x^-12 (b) 3X^-3 (c) 4X^-4 (d) 4X^-3 (e) 4X^-4
39. Simplify Log₁₀⁴ + Log₁₀²⁵ (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5
40. A boy measured the length and breadth of a rectangular lawn as 59.6m and 40.3m respectively instead of 60m and 40m. what is the percentage error in his calculation of the perimeter of the Lawn? (a) 10% (b) 1.4 % (c) 0.7% (d) 0.2% (e) 0.1%

EDU DELIGHT TUTORS

BIOLOGY

SECTION A

1. Which of the following is not an organ? (A) Hair (b) Tongue (c) Rhizome (d) Corn (e) Heart
2. One major differences between Osmosis and Diffusion is that diffusion (a) Does not need a semi – permeable membrane (b) Does not take place in living tissues (c) Takes place only in a liquid medium (d) Takes place only in a gaseous medium (e) can not be demonstrated experimentally
3. Which of the following can be used for vegetative propagation? (a) Ginger Stem (b) Yam Leaf (c) Plantain roots (d) Sweet Potato Tuber (e) Plantain roots
4. Which of the following is a method of artificial vegetative propagation? (a) Creeping stem (b) Layering (c) Corn (d) Rhizome (e)Bulbil
5. Which of the following is not a function of the blood? (a) Maintenance of body temperature (b) Formation of Clot (c) Distribution of bile (d) Transportation of excretory materials (e) Distribution of hormones
6. Which of the following statements about the circulation of blood is not correct? (a) Deoxygenated blood flows into the heart through the Vena Vavae (b) Blood is pumped out of the heart through the aorta (c) Oxygenated blood from the lungs is carried to the left auricle (d) The Oxygenated blood enters the lungs through the pulmonary vein (e) Ventricles contract to pump blood into the aorta
7. A difference between the auricle and the ventricle of the mammalian heart is that the(a) Ventricles carry deoxygenated blood (b) Ventricles do not have outlets (c) Auricles have no Valves (d) walls of the ventricles are less muscular than that of the auricles (e) walls of the ventricles are more muscular than that of the auricles
8. Which of the following organisms respire through the surface? (a) Man (b) Fish (c) Tridax (d) Amoeba (e) Hibiscus
9. The stomata of a leaf perform the same functions as (a) Spiracles of Insects (b) Trachea of Toads (c) Pharynx of man (d) Liver of man (e) Scales of Fish
10. Which of the following does not happen during inspiration? (a) Intercostal muscles contract (b) Ribs move forward (c) Thoracic Cavity increases (d) Diaphragm Relaxes (e) Internal air decreases
11. Which of these is not an excretory product of plants? (a) Tanin (b) Gum (c) Alkaloid (d) Sweat (e)Anthocyaxin
12. Which of these is not a function of the kidney? (a) production of urine (b) Maintenance of acid base balance in the body (c) Osmo – Regulation (d) Removal of Urea (e) Production of Bile
13. In which part of Kidney does ultrafiltration take place? (a) Bowman’s Capsule (b) Distal Convoluted Tubule (c) Proximal Convoluted Tubule (d) Collecting duct (e) Afferent arteriole
14. Which of the following organs is concerned with detoxication of harmful compounds? (a) Kidney (b) Lungs (c) Gall Bladder (d) Liver (e) Pancreas
15. The hormone that promotes secondary sexual characteristics in females is (a) Insulin (b) Thyroxin (c) Testosterone (d) Oxytocin (e) Oestrogen
16. Which of the following organisms lacks a reproductive organ? (a) Chlamydomonas (b) Toad (c) Pride of Barbados (d) Cockroach (e) Man
17. The collective name for the female part is (a) Gynoecium (b) Androecium (c) Ovary (d) Stigma (e) Style
18. If the petals of a flowering plant are removed, which of the following processes is likely to be affected? (a) Transpiration (b) Pollination (c) Germination (d) Photosynthesis (e) Dispersal
19. Which of the following processes removes Co₂ from the atmosphere? (a) Respiration (b) Photosynthesis (c) Transpiration (d) Excretion (e)Combustion
20. The role of bacteria in the nitrogen cycle includes the following except (a) Fixing atmospheric nitrogen (b) Converting ammonia to nitrates (c) Converting nitrates to nitrates (d) Converting Carbohydrates to carbon dioxide (e) Causing the decay of dead organisms
21. The mode of nutrition which describes feeding habits in animals is (a) Autotrophic (b) Holozoic (c) Holophytic (d) Saprophytic (e)Photosynthesis
22. Which of the following organisms has homodont dentition? (a) Rabbit (b) Man (c) Sheep (d) Cate (e)Lizard
23. The pancreatic duct opens into the (a) Caecum (b) Ileum (c) Colon (d) Duodenum (e) Oesophagus
24. The enzyme that acts on milk in the stomata is (a) Intertase (b) Trypsin (c) Diastase (d) renin (e) Ptyalin
25. Which of the following plants is a carnivore? (a) Desmodium (b) Sundew (c) Mushroom (d) Platycerium (e)Liver wort
26. Which of the following contains a reducing sugar (a) Milk (b) Cassava (c) Grape Fruit (d) Beans (e) Plantain
27. Which of the following instruments can be used to measure relative humidity?(a) Anemometer (b) Hygrometer (c) Wind Guage (d) Barometer (e) Thermometer
28. In a food chain, each stage in the chain is a (a) Chain Level (b) web Level (c) Consumption Level (d) Trophic Level (e) Productive Level
29. Excessive loss of water from the leaf is prevented by the (a) Vascular Bundles (b) Cuticle (b) Midrib (d) Parenchyma (e) Mesophyll
30. The earthworm is important because (a) Its body is always moist (b) Each of its segment has chetae (c) It has a clitellum (d) it aerates the soil (e) it reproduces fast
31. Which of the following plant parts is not a storage organs? (a) Carrot root (b) sugar cane stem (c) Onion Leaf (d) Banana Stem (e) cassava Root
32. Oil is sprayed over stagnant water in which mosquitoes breed in order to (a) Provide landing surface for the adult (b) Prevent larva or pupa from attaching itself to the surface (c) Prevent the water from Overheating (d) Lubricate the Larva for easy movement (e) provide surface for laying their eggs
33. Termites are called social insects because (a) The nests are built by the nasute Soldiers (b) They Live together in communities (c) The queen allocates duties to the workers (d) The King and queen do mate (e) The functions of the workers and soldiers are very important
34. Which of the following organisms does not exist as a single cell? (a) Amoeba (b) Euglena (c) Volvox (d) Chlamydomonas
35. Which of the following diseases result from the deficiency of insulin? (a) Cretinism (b) Goitre (c) Beri – Beri (d) Diabetes
36. Roots hairs absorb water from the soil by (a) Diffusion (b) Osmosis (c) Plasmolysis (d) Transcolation
37. The vessels that carries blood from the heart to the lung is called an artery because it (a) Contains oxygenated blood (b) Contains more blood that the other vessels (c) Carries blood away from the heart (d) It has thick inelastic wall
38. The teeth used for tearing and cutting are (a) Canine and Molars (b) Premolar and Incissors (c) Molar and Incissors (d) Canine and Incissiors
39. Terrestrial Plants exchange gases through the following except (a) Chloroplast (b) stomata (c) Lenticels (d) Root – cells
40. The importance of a balanced diet is to (a) Maintain Constant size of an animal (b) Provide good taste in the food (c) Increase the effectiveness of digestion (d) Provide good health for an individual

SECTION B

ANSWER TWO QUESTIONS

1. Name four similarities found in plant and animal cells
   1. In a tabular form, list four different cells found in man and give a function for each of the cells
2. Name the two types of reproduction usually associated with organisms

2. Define the term metamorphosis
   1. Name the two types of metamorphosis that organisms undergo and mention two organisms that undergo each type
3. Stat four economic importance of insects and name an example of each of the insects involved.

3. What is pollution?
   1. Name two pollutants each of air and water
   2. State four effects of water pollution
   3. Mention four ways of preventing water pollution in an environment
4. What is balanced diet
   1. Name four classes of food other than proteins
      1. Give one example of food substance for each class named
      2. State three functions of proteins in humans

• Describe the appearance of a child with protein deficiency

SECTION C (PRATICALS)

Study the specimen carefully and use them to answer the following questions

1. Mention one structural similarity among specimens A, B, C, D and E
2. State the observable reproductive structure in each of the specimen A, B, C, D and E
3. In a tabular form, list the structural differences between specimen A and C
4. Mention the stages of development in F and H
5. State the habitat of F, G and H
6. State two economic importance of specimen G and H

EDU DELIGHT TUTORS

AGRIC SCIENCE SS 2

1. Commercial agriculture is characterized by (a) Use of machines (b) Small Farm holdings (c) Low capital investment (d) Little research activity
2. The most common method of acquiring land in west Africa is by (a) Mortgage (b) Communal ownership (c) Leasehold (d) Inheritance
3. The agricultural sector in West Africa is plagued with poverty because (a) Farmers belong to cooperative societies (b) Yields obtained per annum are relatively low (c) Farmers have access to credit facilities (d) The weather is highly predictable
4. The function of the seed- tube of a seed drill is to (a) Transport seeds from the metering device to the farrow opener (b) Control the rate of placement of seeds in the soil (c) Cover seeds placed in the soil (d) Open the soil for seed placement
5. The machine used for removing seeds from maize cobs is called a (a) Mill (b) Decorticator (c) Winnower (d)Shelter
6. The appropriate farm tool for lifting tomato seedlings for transplanting is the (a) Dibber (b) Hoe (c) Handtrowel (d) Hand Trowel
7. It is important to clean and grease plough discs after use to (a) Prevent rusting (b) Sharpen the discs (c) Reduce friction (d) Reduce the lifespan
8. Wind can be beneficial to crop production because it (a) Aids weed seeds dispersal (b) Aids pollination of crops (c) causes lodging of crops (d) Causes rapid drying of wet soils
9. The method of surface irrigation widely used in rice fields is (a) Basin Irrigation (b) wild Flooding (c) Farrow irrigation (d) Border strip
10. The practice of growing different crops in sequence on a piece of land is know as (a) rotational grazing (b) Monoculture (c) Crop rotation (d) Mixed farming
11. Which of the following is not an effect of over grazing on soil? (a) Improvement of soil structure (b) Soil compaction (c) Exposure of soil to erosion (d) Depletion of soil nutrient
12. The major factor affecting distribution of crops in West Africa is (a)Climate (b) Soil (c) Topography (d) Disease
13. Nutrient replenishment in soil can be enhanced by (a) Crop removal (b) Leaching (c) Erosion (d) Crop rotation
14. What is the function of Nitrosomonas bacteria in the nitrogen cycle? (a) Ammonification (b) Nitrification (c) Denitrification (d) Nitrogen Fixation
15. A mass of decayed plant and animal wastes processed in pits is referred to as (a) Green Manure (b) Farmyard manure (c) Compost manure (d) Inorganic manure
16. A major disadvantages of monoculture is that (a) Soil Texture is destroyed (b) Soil Microbes are destroyed (c) diseases and pests build up (d) Farms cannot be mechanized
17. Which of the following pairs of farming systems uses bush fallowing? (a) Crop rotation and land rotation (b) Shifting cultivation and land rotation (c) Land rotation and mixed farming (d) crop rotation and monoculture
18. Continuous soil tillage could lead to (a) Increased infiltration of water (b) Reduced run – off (c) Break down of soil structure (d) Improve soil texture
19. A bag of fertilizer has a ratio of 0:10:0 written on it. This means that the fertilizer is a (a) Lime Fertilizer (b) Nitrogenous fertilizer (c) Phosphate Fertilizer (d) Potassium Fertilizer
20. Theobroma Cacow grows best in the (a) Sudan Savannah Zone (b) Humid Rain forest Zone (c) Mangrove Swamp Forest Zone (d) Northern Guinea Savannah Zone
21. The following plants are forage grasses except (a) Pennisetumpurpereum (b) Panicum maximum (c) Axonopuscompressus( CaloprogniumMucunoides
22. Which of the following statements about budding is not true? The resulting crops (a) can understand adverse climatic conditions (b) Flower and bear fruit early (c) Develop broader leaves for photosynthesis (d) are more disease resistant
23. A farm produce which does not require fermentation during processing is (a) cocoa beans (b) coffee beans (c) cassava tubers (d) rice grain
24. Causal Prganisms of disease in crops production do not include (a) Viruses (b) Fungi (c) Protozoa (d) Bacteria
25. An example of Fungal disease of stored grain is (a) Mould (b) Streak (c) Mosaic (d) Damping off
26. Cultural control of crop diseases involves the following practices except (a) Practising crop rotation (b) Planting disease resistant varieties (c) Using insecticides (d) Fallowing of farm land
27. Weeds which produce large hollow seeds would most likely be dispersed by (a) Wind (b) Water (c) Insect (d) Explosion
28. Control of maize stem borer is most effective when (a) affected crops are uprooted and burnt (b) rodenticides are applied (c) Nematicides are applied (d) Fertilizers are applied before planting
29. The average gestation period in rabbit is (a) 21 days (b) 26 days (c) 31 days (d) 36 days
30. The correct sequence of passage of feed through the digestive system of a ruminant is (a) Reticulum – Omasum – Abomasum – Rumen (b) Rumen – Omasum – Abomasum – Reticulum (c) Omasum – Abomasum – Rumen – Reticulum (d) Rumen – Reticulum – Omasum – Abomasum
31. The main objective of the flushing in animal production is to (a) Promote muscle development (b) Make Parturition easier (c) Promote multiple births (d) Make the animal lose weight
32. Pigs wallow in muddy pools of water primarily to (a) ensure adequate exercise (b) Obtain forage materials (c) Dislodge ectoparasite from their body (c) Lower their body temperature
33. Fowls are debeaked in order to (a) Reduce food intake (b) Make them grow faster (c) Reduce Cannibalism (d) Check spread of disease
34. A chicken that pecks at palm fruits could prevent a deficiency of (a) Vitamin K (b) Vitamin E (c) Vitamin B (d) Vitamin A
35. The common name for Andropogongayanus is (a) Elephant Grass (b) Northern Gambia Grass (c) Guinea Grass (d) Giant Star grass
36. A footbath on a poultry farm contains (a) Herbicides (b) Antiseptics (c) Antibiotics (d) Disinfectants
37. Ectoparasite of cattle do not include (a) Flees and mites (b) Ticks and mites (c) Lice and termites (d) Flees and ticks
38. In agricultural production, farm gate price is mostly enjoyed by (a) Middle men (b) Producers (c) Commodity Boards (d) Cooperative societies
39. Dissemination of new ideas by Agricultural extension workers can be effective if they (a) Work with existing local organizations and leaders (b) Supply farmers with needed inputs (c) Give financial support to farmers (d) are politically active
40. Ornamental crops are used for the following purposes except (a) Landscaping (b) Interior decoration (c) As symbols of love (d) as fodder

SECTION B

1. Explain the term commercial farming
   1. Mention two agricultural produce used by each of the following agro – based industries
      1. Canning Industry
      2. Beverage Industry

• Feed Mill

2. Discuss the cultivation of cassava under the following headings
   1. Soil requirements
   2. Spacing

• One disease

1. One pest

1. Differentiate between natural pasture and artificial pasture

3. What are Ornamental Plants?
   1. State four vegetative methods that could be used to propagate ornamental plants
4. What is demand?
   1. Explain each of the following terms as used in Agricultural production
      1. Collateral
      2. Farm inventory record
   2. List four ways of preserving fish

SECTION C (Practical)

1. Identify specimens A and B by the feel method
   1. Name two crops that would thrive well on each of specimens A and B
   2. Mention three ways by which specimen B can be improved
2. Identify specimens C and D
   1. State three ways in which specimen C is important in crop production
   2. State three uses of specimen D in Agriculture
      2. Identify specimen H, I, J and K
         1. State two uses of each of specimens J and K
         2. State three general ways in maintaining Specimens H and I

• State four precautions to be taken when using Specimen J

SECOND TERM EXAM

SS 11

PHYSICS

1. ____________ is the heat supplied or remove which causes a change of style without a change in temperature      (a) Latent heat           (b) Vaporization                             (c) Heat of fusion   (d) specific heat
2. _____________ is a process where a liquid turn spontaneously into vapour below its boiling point

3.A stationery bell is hit by an average force 50N for a time of 0,03 sec. what is the impulse experienced by the body ?

(a) 15N/s            (b)m1.5N/s               (c) 1.25 N/s        (d) 2.5N /s

4. A meter rule is pivoted at its midpoint C with a verticel force of 10N hanging from the distance 30cm from C . at what distance must a 15N force hang to balance the ruler horizontally?

(a) 30cm             (b) 2.0cm                (c) 20cm             (d) 25cm

5.For a projectile the maximum range is obtained when the angle of projection is _____

(a)60⁰                   (b) 30⁰                 (c) 45⁰   (d) 75⁰

6. A ball is released from a height above the ground. find its velocity after 5 seconds take g as 10m5^-2

(a)20m                (b) 5m   (c) 50cm     (d)60m

7. The derived unit of pressure can be expressed as

(a) kgm^-15^-1              (b) kgm5²                       (c) kgm^-25^-2                       (d)kgm^-15^-2

8. Which of the following devices is used to determine the relative intensive of an acid

(a) manometer                (b) hydrometer                      (c) hypsometer                      (d) hygrometer

9. Which of the following substances is the most volatile at room temperature?

(a)Water             (b) diesel               (c)petrol              (d) kerosene

10. The movement of fluid up or down a narrow tube is _______

(a) Brownian motion      (b) capillarity           (c) diffusion               (d) Osmosis

11. The 5/1 unit of heat is ______ (a) Joule (b) Kelvin    (c) Watt              (d) ampere
12. The tendency for stationery body to continue to remain at rest when a force is applied to

it is known as _____________ (a) Impulse               (b) inertia           (c) momentum                 (d) Friction

13. When a body is slightly tilted. it is found that its centre of gravity is slightly raised , what is the state of equilibrium of the body (a) Unstable (b) Neutral (c) cannot be determined
14. A balling through a viscous liquid is acted upon by

(a) up thrust only            (b) up thrust and the ball’s weight  (c) The ball’s weight and viscous force

(d)up thrust , the ball’s weight and viscous force

15. Alcohol of mass 21g and density 0.7gcm^-3 is mixed with log of water . determine the density of the mixture { Density of water = 1.0cm^-3}                (a) 0.775gcm^-3                            (b) 0.780gcm^-3                    (c) 0.875gcm^-3

(d) 0.880gcm^-3

16. The s.1 unit of power is ____________ (a) N (b) pa               (c) W     (d) j

17. The device that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy is _________

(a) Dynamo        (b) An electric motor   (c) An induction coil               (d) A transformer

18. Heat transfer by conduction is similar to wave motion because

(a) There is increase in temperature      (b) Transfer of  materials is involved

(c) Charges particles vibrate at right angle          (d) No transfer of material is involved

19. An electric motors converts

(a) Electrical energy to mechanical energy          (b) Mechanical energy to  electrical energy

(c) mechanical energy to sound energy                    (d)Electrical energy to thermal energy

20. Which of the following units is derived (a) kg (b) M               (c) K       (d) N
21. Which of the following is not a vector quantity? (a) Speed (b) force

©Velocity (d) Acceleration.

22. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity? (a)Density    (b) speed

(c) Temperature      (d) weight

23. Two force, whose resultant is 100N, are perpendicular to each other. If one them makes me an angle of 60⁰ with the resultant, calculate its imagination

Calculate its magnitude.

(Sin 60⁰ =0.8660, cos 60⁰= 0.5000)

• 0 N (b) 173.2N (c)115.5N           (d)   86.6N

24. Find by drawing and by calculating the resultant of two vector 3units and 4units inclined to  each other at  (a) 30⁰    (b)  90⁰      (c)   120⁰       (d)75⁰
25. Resolve a force of 100N inclined at 50⁰ to the horizontal, calculate the horizontal components.

• 28N (b)  60.28N      (c)  70.00N     (d)  28.60N

26. A body starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration. Which of the following quantities varies / vary linearly with the square of the line?

• I = velocity, II = Displacement, (III)   momentum
• I only    (b)   II  only    (c)   I  and II  only     (d)   III only

27. A body which is uniformly retarded comes to rest in 10s after traveling a distance of 20m calculate its initial velocity:

• 5m5^-1 (b)  2.0m5^-1     (c)  20.0m5^-1   (d)   200.0m5^-1

28. A mango fruit drops to the ground from the top of its tree which is 5m high. How long does it take to reach the ground/

• 05 (b)  2.05    (c) 3.05   (d)  0.55

29. Calculate the height from which a body is released from rest if its velocity just before hitting the ground is 30m5^-1
30. Calculate the height from which a body is released from rest if its velocity just before hitting the ground is 30m5^-1
31. ……………………………. Is the time required for a projectile to return to the same level from which it was projected?

• Maximum height (b)    time of flight   (c) Range       (d)  None of the above

32. The formula for range is …………………………………..

• R= u² sin 2 0   (b) R = u² sin2 0     (c)    R = 2u sin 0   (d)  R  = 1\2gT²

g        2g              g

33. A ball is projected horizontally from the top of a hill with a velocity of 30m5-1. If it reaches the ground 5 seconds letter. The height of the hill is

(a) 20m    (b) 125m    (c) 250m    (d)   65m

34. ……………………… is the highest vertical distance attained as measured from the horizontal projection plane? (a) Time of flight     (b)  maximum height

© range   (d)    time of motion

35. ……………………………. Is single force which acting alone will have the same effect in magnitude and direction as two or more forces acting together?

• Resultant (b)   force    (c)  moment     (d)   opposition

36. The 5.1 unit of the moment of a force is ;

• Kgm    (b)   Nm    (c)   Nm^-1        (d)    Jm

37. ………………………………. Is the body is either not rotating at all or in rotating at a constant angular velocity.

• Equilibrium (b)   Dynamic       (c)    Rotation      (d)resultant

38. A uniform meter rule balances on a knife edges at 55cm mark when a mass of 40g is hung from 95cm mark find the weight of the ruler.

• 32kg     (b)  32kg        (c0   45kg         (d)  5kg

39. ………………………. Is the velocity  decrease by equal amount in equal times

• Uniform velocity      (b) acceleration   (c)  uniform acceleration   (d) speed

40. ……………………………. Is the time required for a projectile to return to the same level from which it was projected?

• Maximum height (b)    time of flight   (c) Range       (d)  None of the above

THEORY

1. Define latent heat of vapourization

2. Define specific heat capacity

3. What is moment

4. a body of mass 3.0kg moves with a velocity of 10ml5^-1

5. State the application of expansion

6. State three (3) heat transfer

CLASS:  S.S.2

SUBJECT: BIOLOGY

1. Which of the following organisms exhibits both plant and animals characteristic

(a) Amoeba     (b) Spirogyra           (c) mucor        (d) Euglena          (e) moss

2. Which of the following is not an organ ?

(a) Hair           (b) Tongue           (c) Rhizome    (d) Heart

3. Which of the following examples that describes camouflage coloration in organism

(a) A zebra with vertical stripes on the body     (b) a green snake in a green grass

(c) Certain three frogs with bright color patters

4. In a food chain , each stage in the chain is a ___________

(a) Chain level (b)web level           (c) Consumption level    (d) tropic level

Use the diagram above to answer question 5 – 7

5. The diagram above illustrates

(a) The size of various organisms     (b0 Types of organism in a habitat

(c) The food chain   (d) The flow of energy in a habitat

6. Which of these organisms occupies 3rd tophic level

(a) King fisher          (b) Big Fish           (c)phytoplankton

7. which of these organisms is a herbivore

(a) Tadpole   (b) phytoplankton          (c) Big fish          (d) Kingfishes

8. The vessel that carries blood from the heart to the lungs is called an artery because it

(a) It contains oxygenated blood    (b) carries blood away from the heart(c)Contains more blood than the other vessel

(d) Has thick inelastic wall

9.The teeth used in tearing and cutting are

(a) canine and molars           (b) premolar and incisors         (c) canine and incisors

10. Tugor pressure occurs in a cell when the

(a) cell losses water to its environment  (b) volume of its cell sap environment

(c) volume of cell decrease       (d) cells is put in isotonic solution

11. which of the following disease results from the deficiency of insulin

(a) cretinism  (b) goiter           (c) beriberi    (d) Diabetes

12. which of the following is not a function of the liver in mammals

(a) conversation of glycogen into glucose           (b) storage of some vitamins

(c) Deamination of excess nitrogenous subtances     (d) Filtration of urea from the blood

13. Hypermetropia is corrected by the use of ______________-

(a)Concave lenses  (b) convex lenses         (c) cylindrical lenses     (d) contact lenses

14. The medulla oblongata controls all the following except

(a) heartbeat (b) Breathing rate          (c) blood pressure        (d) Balance and posture

15. which of the following is not a characteristic feature of wind dispersed fruit

(a) light weight         (b) wing apparatus        (c) flossy structure        (d) Buoyancy

16. Amoeba obtains its oxygen requirements

(a) from oxidizing food substances   (b) from air trapped (c)through diffusion

(d) Through an air cavity in the ectoplasm

17. The hydra has two body layers of cells called

(a) Ectodermic and enteron           (b)epidermis and dermis           (c) ectoderm and endoderm           (d) Endodermis and dermis

18. In which of the following organism is ammonia excreted as a waste product?

(a) Man         (b) bird           (c) Amoeba   (c) spirogyra

19. The following are useful effect of micro organisms except

(a) Production of vaccines       (b) curing of tobacco         (c) tanning of leather

(d) decay of meat

20. which of the following is responsible for the increased beat of boy who saw a python (a) adrenalin       (b) insulin           (c0 pituitrin           (d)thyroxin

21. The nerves that arise from brain are known as

(a) spiral nerves      (b) scicral nerves          (c) cranial nerves          (d) optic nerves

22. Which of the following part of the eye is sensitive to light

(a) Retina      (b) cornea           (c) choroid layer           (c0 optic nerves

23. What happen to an ovule of a flower after fertilization?

(a) Becomes a fruit  (b0 withers away (c) becomes a seed      (d) forms cotyledons

24. Which of the following is not dry indehiscent fruit?

(a) legume    (b) cypsela           (c) caryopsis

25. The first stable product of photosynthesis is

(a) starch      (b) glucose           (c) oxygen     (d) water

26. A man with heterozygous genotype for blood group B marries a  woman  with heterozygous A, What percentage  (%)  of their children would be universal donor

(a) 50 %        (b) 25%           (c) 15%         (d) 10%

27.The genes affecting  the same trait  and are located at the same oosition on the homologous chromosomes are called

(a) Autosomes           (b)alleles           (c)loci (d) chromatids

28. In humans, sex is determined by ________

(a) Two homologous  chromosomes          (b) A dominant gene for maleness present in a male  and

(c) Two similar sex chromosomes in a male and  dissimilar min the female

(d) The difference in the nature of the X and Y chromosomes in male.

29. Which of the following statements about blood groups in human is not correct

(a)Siblings may not belong to the same blood group

(b) There are four possible blood groups

(c) People with blood group O can receive blood from all other groups

(d)People with blood  group AB are universal recipients

30. Which of the following is not a morphological variation in human being

(a) Size         (b) Blood           (c) color        (d) finger prints

31. Which of the following is an adaptation by plants to reduce the rate of water loss in a dry habitat possession of

(a) A few sunken stomata on the lower epidermis only    (b) long leaf tendrils

(c) leaves with serrated edges (d) strong tap root.

32. The following are serial insects except

(a) wasps      (b) termites           (c) bees           (d)cotton stainer

33. which of the following can be considered as a direct  evidence of evolution

(a) classification      (b) comparative anatomy           (c) comparative embryology

(d) fossil record

34. The name given to a sudden change in gene or chromosome that can be passed  onto the offspring is
35. inheritance (b)linkage alleles            mutation

35. Water and salt are both lost from human body in

(a)breath and sweat            (b)sweat and urine           (c)breath, urine and salt         (d)breath and urine

36. A person had an accident that affected the skull but not the nose and later lost the sense of smell. the accident must have affected the

(a).the nose by extension           (b) factory lobes of the brain       (c)passage from the nose

(d)part of the skull near the nose

37. Ability of the human eye to focus images accurately on the retina is called

(a) Astigmatism       (b) myopia          (c) adjustment    (d) accommodation

38. Oil applied to the surface of water kills the larvae of mosquitoes through

(a) dehydration        (b) poisoning      (c) starvation      (d) suffocation

39. In which of the following insects is group instinct not displayed

(a) Soldier ants        (b) cockroach     (c) honeybee      (d) termites

40. The inability of an organism to adapt to its habitat can lead to

(a) dormancy            (b)adaptation            (c) extinction           (d)survival

THEORY

SECTION B PART 1

1. Define the law of independent assortment

(ii) State the finding by means of simple experiment involving white – flowered and red flowered  pea plant

(ii) Illustrates these findings by means of simple diagrams

(b) Explain why  blood group s A and B in man can exist both in heterozygous  and homozygous condition while blood group  O can only exist in homozygous state

(2a(i)What is pollination

(ii) Name two pollutant each of air and water

b(i) State four effects of water pollution or  organisms

(ii) Mention four ways of preventing water pollution  in an environment

(iii) Name three sources of noise pollution

(iv) State three effect of noise pollution on man.

(3a(i)Define the term metamorphosis

(ii) Name two types of metamorphosis that organisms undergo and mention two organism that undergo each type

B(i) State four economics importance of insects and name an example of each of the insects involved.

(iii) List four peculiar feature of social insects

4a(i) Name four similarities found in plant and animal cells

(ii) In a tabular form , list four different cells found in man and give a function for each of the cells

(bi) Name two types of cells divisions

(ii) Give two example each of life processes involved in each type of the cell divisions

(iii) Name the two types of reproduction usually associated with organisms

PART II

Answer one question only from the part

(5)State the principles  involved  in the following methods of food preservation

(a) Salting (ii) Refrigeration          (iii) smoking                  (iv) Chemicals

(b) State four problems that may be caused by human over population

(c) Explain three ways by which the government may increase food production

(6) Define the term hydrosphere

(ii) Give three examples of hydrosphere

(bi) State the two laws of thermodynamics

Use the second law of thermodynamics to explain the energy flow across trophic levels.

(b) state two local biotic communities in Nigeria associate each type with a particular state in Nigeria

(c) List three factorsd that affect organisms in marine habitat

(d) State three adaptive features of sea weed

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

CLASS: SS 2

SUBJECT: COMMERCE

1. The scope of commerce is limited to (a) Home and Foreign (b) Wholesale and Retail trade     (c) Trade and aids – to- trade         (d)  Wholesale and entrepot trade
2. A worker who processes garri is engaged in (a) Extracting (b)  Manufacturing     (c) Exchange        (d)  Constructing
3. Which of the following is not a commercial occupation? (a) Transportation (b) Warehousing    (c) Banking        (d)  Finishing
4. Industry is a branch of production because it ?(a) Is a division of commerce (b)  Increase Unity of goods    (c) Involves the use of machine        (d)  Deals with durable goods.

When a public company receives the certificate of incorporation, this implies that  ?(a) it can go ahead and start business  (b)  it can no longer sue or be used    (c) The company finds it difficult to raised capital       (d)  The company’s assets exist separately from those of its members

6. The main feature of a holding company is ?(a) That resource are used for the interest of the community (b) Accepting responsibilities beyond the aims of private enterprises    (c) That is has financial control over other companies     (d) That it has profit-sharing scheme for employees.
7. When a number of thrift societies come together and are registered, they become a (a) Holding Company (b) Credit Union (c) Trade Union         (d)  Consumer association
8. Which of the following would not be stated in a memorandum of Association? to(a) Name clause (b) Registered Office (c) Object Clauses         (d)  Rights of Shareholders
9. The greatest risk in a business ventures is borne by the (a) Trade Creditors (b) Employees (c) Trade debtors (d)  Enterpreneurs
10. A partner with an unlimited liability is known as a (a) Dormant partner (b) Nominal Partner      (c) General partner          (d)  Active partner
11. A partnership, without a deed shares profits/losses (a) In the ratio of partner’s capital (b) Equally among the partners (c) Proportionate of patronage (d)  Proportionate of assets introduced
12. The total amount of money actually received by a company out of the issued capital is (a) Paid – up Capital (b) Unissued Capital (c) reserved capital  (d)  called-up capital
13. If the turnover of a business is N16,000 and the cost of goods sold is N12,000 , what is the percentage of gross profit on sales? (a) 75% (b) 40% (c) 33.3%         (d)  25%
14. In which of the following do shareholders always vote according to their shareholdings?

(a) Partnership (b) Co-operative Society    (c) Public Limited Company         (d)  Public Corporation

15. A public company has an authorized capital of 60, 000 shares

(a) share costs 150k and the company has issued 36,000 shares. The issued capital would be

(a) N90,000  (b) N60,000     (c) N54,000         (d)  N36,000

16. The rate of turn over of a company in a given years is 4 times while the average stock is N12, 400. What is the turn over of the company? (a) N49, 600 (b) N24,800     (c) N6,200         (d)  N3,100
17. Which of the following is the best channel for the sale of an aircraft? (a) Producer-Wholesaler-Consumer (b) Producer-Retailer-Consumer (c) Producer-Consumer(d) Producer-Wholesaler-Retailer-Consumer
18. Which of the following is an advantage of large scale retailing? (a) Decline in personal service (b) Pilfering (c) High overhead cost   (d)  One-stop shopping
19. Which of the following is not a function of the retailer? (a) buying in bulk and warehousing (b) buying and selling in bits to consumers       (c)   advising consumers on the right type of goods  (d)  granting credit to customers
20. The refund made on goods, re-exported after being imported is known as (a) import duty (b) export duty       (c) excise  draw back  (d)  customs draw back.
21. Which of the following require the services of middle-man? (a) Technical goods (b) Expensive goods      (c) Convenience goods  (d)  Perishable goods
22. Entrepot trade means (a) Exchange of goods between two Countries (b) Exchange of goods among many Countries       (c) Exporting goods to be re-imported   (d)  Importing goods to be re-exported.
23. To sell a bill at less than the face value before its maturity is (a) Discounting (b) Retiring (c) Accepting   (d)  Noting
24. Which of the following tells the customer exactly what has been sold to him, the amount due and any discount granted? (a) Advice note (b) Statement     (c) Invoice (d)  Credit note
25. Which of the following documents is required when a bill of lading is not readily available to enable the goods to be landed? (a) Bill of exchange (b) Certificate of origin (c) Consumer invoice   (d)  Bill of sight
26. Total assets minus liabilities is equal to a company’s (a) Gross profit (b) Net profit (c) capital   owned (d)  capital employed.
27. Taxes imposed on locally made goods are known as (a) advalorem duties (b) Import duties (c) Export drawback   (d)  Excise duties
28. Which of the following contains the complete information on goods available for sale? (a) Invoice (b) Delivery note (c) Consignment   (d)  Catalogue
29. Which of the following is used to inform the buyer that goods ordered are on the way? (a) Quotation (b) Froforma invoice     (c) Advice note (d) Despatch book
30. Quality discount is offered to persuade the buyer to (a) Pay promptly (b) Deter payment (c) Pay a deposit   (d)   Buy more
31. The process of dealing with a cheque once it has been paid into the creditor’s bank is (a) Paid – up Clearing   (b) Accepting       (c) Negotiating   (d)  Discounting
32. Selling of new shares to current shareholders at prices below the market value of the existing shares is (a) Bonus issue  (b) Rights issue     (c) Private placing (d)  Offer for sale
33. Which of the following types of insurance is taken against claims made by staff who get injured while at work? (a) Fidelity guarantee insurance (b) Consequential loss insurance (c) Products’ liability Insurance   (d)  Employers’ liability insurance
34. If the insured has been fully in demnified, the insurers are entitled to take any advantage due to the insured. (a) Indemnity (b) Subrogation     (c) Contribution (d)  Insurable interest
35. Who among the following sells securities in anticipation of a fall in price? (a) Bear (b) Stag (c) Jobber   (d)  Bull
36. Which of the following provides a proof of posting and that the item has got to the addressee? (a) Certificate of posting (b) Recorded delivery       (c) Registered letter   (d)  Express letter.
37. A transporter who does not reject carrying lawful goods to a destination is (a) Tramp vessel (b) Ocean liner      (c) Common carner(d)  Private carner
38. One disadvantage of rail transport is (a) suitability for fragile goods (b) Obsence of pilferage       (c) Vulnerability to severe weather   (d)  Inflexibility
39. Which of the following does not belong to the group? (a) Posters (b) Window display      (c) Free samples   (d)  Hoarding of goods.
40. A retailer sells his products at “ Buy-two-take-three”. The sales promotion method referred to is (a) Free sample (b) Gift (c) Premium   (d)  Trade discount.

41. Which of the following is NOT an aim of advertising?
42. creating a desire to purchase the goods
43. arousing the interest of the public
44. attracting the attention of the public
45. inspiring public confidence in the goods
46. reducing the cost of the goods produced
47. Use the following information answer this question.

What is the gross profit?

1. N2050
2. N3720
3. N4020
4. N4320
5. N4720
6. Which of the following warehouse is generally found near a port?
7. bonded warehouse
8. distributor’s warehouse
9. manufacturer’s warehouse
10. producer’s warehouse
11. wholesaler’s warehouse
12. Banks issue cheque books to customers holding ……… accounts.
13. current
14. deposit
15. fixed deposit
16. foreign
17. savings
18. The difference between the higher prices and the lower prices quoted for shares and stocks at the stock exchange is known as
19. brokerage
20. commission
21. contango
22. interest
23. jobbers turn
24. An agreement that is enforceable in law is called
25. a contract
26. a declaration
27. a decree
28. an offer
29. a statute
30. One of the following does NOT fit into the group.
31. agriculture
32. carpentry
33. fishing
34. mining
35. quarrying
36. Which is NOT a legislation aimed at protecting the consumer?
37. consumer association act
38. food and drugs act
39. hire purchase act
40. sales of goods act
41. trade description act
42. Which of the following CANNOT be sold through a vending machine?

A ice-cream

1. shoes
2. snacks
3. tea
4. tickets

45

50. A voluntary association of business executives, trader men, entrepreneurs and others in a city, town or country is called a
51. chamber of commerce
52. consumers association
53. manufacturers association
54. trade association
55. trade union

THEORY ANSWER ANY THREE (3) QUESTIONS

1a. Define the following :-

1. Nominal Capital
2. Working Capital

iii. Issued Capital

1. Define capital in the view of
2. an accountant
3. an economist

iii. the layman’s point

2a. Fred Asanal had the following state of affairs as at 31^stDecember, 1999

Vehicles                                                82,000

Furniture                                               15,000

Stocks                                                   38,000

Debtors                                                 25,000

Creditors                                               30, 000

Cash in hand                                        10,000

Bank overdraft                                     5,000

Capital                                                  135,000

Calculate the following:-

1. Current assets
2. Current Liabilities

iii. Working Capital

1. Mention (4) four types of credits with short note

3a. The following information is taken from the balance sheet of XYZ Ltd

Opening stock                                     1,000

Purchases                                             10,000

Sales                                                     15,000

Wages                                                   1,000

Closing Stock                                       5, 000

You are required to calculate:-

1. Cost of goods sold
2. rate of turn over

iii. net profit

1. Average stock
2. Write short note on
3. Credit
4. turnover

iii. Profit

4a. Write a short note on the following

1. Marine insurance
2. fire insurance

iii. life insurance

1987. The following is the summary of the assets and liabilities of Okon Trading Company as at 31^stMarch, 1987.

Initial Capital                          5,000

Net Profit                                 1,000

Creditors                                  500

Furniture                                  2,000

Equipment                               2,900

Debtors                                    100

Stock                                        1,000

Bank                                        500

From the above figure calculate the:-

1. Current assets
2. Current liabilities

iii. Fixed assets

SECOND TERM EXAM

S S  2

OBJECTIVES

1. R. K

1. Reuben advised his brothers not to kill Joseph but cast him into a pit because he _________

(a) did not want them to shed the blood of an innocent person

(b) Wanted to rescue him afterwards and bring him safely to their father

(c) Wanted to bury him alive in a pit

(d) Wanted them to sell Joseph to the Israelite

2. God commanded Abraham to circumcise his male descendants as _____

(a) Rule binding all mankind

(b) Mark of honour for Abraham

(c) Sign of Gods covenant with Abraham

(d)Mark of faith

3. Joseph was sold to the Israelite for ____________ pieces of silver

(a) Forty              (b) Thirty – five        (c) Thirty             (d) Twenty

4. At the time Deborah became a Judge in Israel , she was a ____

(a) Seer               (b) prophetess                       (c) Prophet               (d) Medium

5. ____________ was Moses father in-law

(a) Horeb            (b) Jethro               (c) Barak               (d)Sisera

6. Which of the following was responsible for the misdeed of the sons of Eli :

(a)Their own stupidity    (b) Their  father lack of parental responsibility

(c) Their lack of religious and moral education

(d) The absence of prophecy in Israel

7.The two holy people in the temple according to Luke’s account that witnessed the presentation of Jesus in the temple in Jerusalem are ___________ and ______________

(a) Anna and Sharon       (b) Elizabeth and Simeon   (c) Anna and Simeon            (d) Simeon and Elizabeth

8. The lord forbid that I should put forth my hand against the lord’s anointed” By this statement David meant that he ____________

(a) Preferred dying to striking Saul.      (b) Wanted Saul to die fighting on the battle field

(c) Wished that Saul lived forever (d) wished that God be the arbitrator between him and Saul

9. On the third day, God created ___________

(a) seas and the earth    (b) Sun, moon and stars         (c) water creatures (d) land animals

10. At the time of creation, the river that flowed out of Eden to water the garden was divided into _________

(a) Pishon, Gion, Tigris and Euphrates           (b) Ahava, Jordan, Nile and Tigris               (c)Nile, Jordan, Pishon  and Gishon         (d) Cyrus, Jordan, Tigris and Euphrate

11. Which of the following signs of Jesus is a nature miracle?

(a) Restoring site to a blind man       (b) Curing the nobleman’s son (c) healing the paralytic

(d) Feeding the Multitude

12. Joseph brothers planned to killed while they were pasturing the flock at _________

(a) Goshen         (b) Canaan               (c) Shechem       (d) Jeusalem

13. What was Jesus response to the second temptation statement of Satan?

(a) You shall not tempt the Lord your God   (b) You shall worship the Lord your God               (c) Man shall not live by bread alone         (d) Get behind me Satan

14. When Moses delayed on the Mountain, the people rebelled against God. How many of them due to their rebellion?

(a) four thousand            (b) one thousand    (c) seven thousand            (d)three thousand

15. Who was the father of Jehosaphat?

(a) Rehoboam   (b) Omril                (c)Asa   (d) Abijam

16. ____________ is an earthly story with an heavenly meaning

(a) Parable          (b) Message               (c) Sermon         (d) Gospel

17. Who killed Sisera?

(a) Saul          (b) David        (c) Jael        (d) Benjamin

18. The two sons of Eli were killed in the battle against the _____________

(a) Philistines     (b) Egyptians               (c) Amalekites    (d) Ai

19. After the death of ___________, Deborah took over as the Judge of Israel

(a) Moses           (b) Ehud               (c) Elim                (d)Lappidoth

20. The two sons of Eli are ____________ and ____________

(a)Hophni and Joel          (b) Abijah and Phinehas                      (c) Joel and Phinehas               (d) Hophni and Phinehas

21. On the fourth day, God created the sun, moon and stars for the following purposes except ______________

(a) to separate the day from the light             (b) for signs of seasons, days and years. (c) to give light upon the earth.

22. “You shall be my own possession among all/people” God mad this promise to the Israelites on condition that the ___________

(a) drove the Canaanites out of the land   (b) kept away from foreign woman   (c) obeyed God’s voice and kept His covenant.

23. The boy Moses was hidden for three months because ____________

(a) he was destined to become a great leader  (b) Pharaoh had decreed the murder of Hebrew ale borns.

24. The New Life is Christ operates through (a) humility (b) one body

(c) wisdom

25. God said to Solomon in a dream, “Ask what I shall give you”. what  did he ask for?

(a) Power and authority            (b) Great wealth and riches   (c) An understanding mind

26. The parable of the rich man and Lazarus indicating that

(a) poverty is a mark of righteousness            (b) death is a leveler for rich and poor   (c) all rich men will go to hellfire

27. In one of the resurrection appearances, Jesus asked his disciples whether they had anything to eat as he

(a) was hungry after three day in the grave without food

(b) suspected that the disciples stock may have finished

(c) wanted to prove to them that he was not a ghost

28. According to the first creation story, the firmament was created before

(a) animals and plants  (b) living creatures   (c) land, seas and vegetation.

29. During the creative activity of God, He made the beasts

(a) in His own image               (b) to multiply on the earth

(c) according to their kinds.

30. God made man in his _____________

(a) own picture            (b) own kinds    (c)  own image

31. Adam called the Eve woman because she [a] was the author of woes  [b] was taken out of man  [c]  causes the fail of man
32. The second account of creature was centered on the creation of ……. [a] birds  [b] the firmament   [c]  man
33. Which of the following was not a Rivers from from Garden of Eden [a]  Gihon  [b] Tigris  [c] Kishun
34. Gehazi became a leper because of his [a] deceitful   [b]  greed   [c]  lies
35. Reuben advices his brothers not to kill Joseph but cast him into a pit because he [a] did not want to shed blood of an innocent person  [b] wants to rescues him  [c] wants to bury him alive in the pit
36. At the time Deborah became a Judge in Israel, She was a [a] Seer [b]  Sorcerer  [c] Prophet
37. Who assisted Moses to bring out the Israelites from Egypt [a] Joshua  [b]  Aaron  [c]   Debora
38. God provided water for the people at Mount ……….  [a]  Sinai  [b]  Carma   [c] Horeb
39. ‘The name of the Lord is a strong tower, the righteous run to it and are safe’ [a] proverb    18;10  [b] Heb 3; 8  [c] Psalm 18;10
40. Joseph was sold to the Ishmaelite for………….. pieces of silver [a]  forty   [b]  thirty  [c]  twenty
41. In the creation story the job of giving names to all living creatures was performed by
42. God
43. Adam and Eve
44. Eve
45. Man
46. The angels of God
47. Reuben advised his brothers to kill Joseph but to cast him into a pit because he
48. he did not want them to shed the blood of the innocent
49. wanted to rescue him afterwards and bring him safely to their father
50. wanted to bury him alive in the pit
51. wanted them to sell Joseph to the Ishmaelites
52. loved his brother dearly
53. Joseph was sold to the Ishmaelites for …….. Shekels of silver
54. forty
55. thirty-five
56. thirty
57. twenty-five
58. twenty
59. when the children of Israelite came to the wilderness of Sin, they murmured against Moses and Aaron because
60. Egyptians were in hot pursuit
61. they were hungry
62. there was neither dew nor rain for seven years
63. both men neglected them to their suffering
64. there were thirsty
65. at the time Deborah became a judge in Israel , she was a
66. seer
67. prophetess
68. priestess
69. medium
70. sorcerer
71. the leader of the Jews who rebuilt the walls of Jerusalem after the exile was
72. Ezra
73. Nehemiah
74. Ezekiel
75. Jeremiah
76. Zedekiah
77. Jonah was swallowed by a fish because he
78. fail to pray to God
79. fell into the water
80. could not swim
81. disobeyed God
82. was thrown into the sea
83. Jesus came to be baptized by John in order to
84. show his faith in John’s power
85. show that He was the Son of God
86. Please the Jews
87. fulfill all righteousness
88. Be forgiven of His sins
89. i will be clean. This statement was made by Jesus at the healing of
90. Bartimaeus
91. The paralytic
92. the woman with the issue of blood
93. The leper
94. the Gerasene demonic
95. In the Gospel of Mathew Jesus sent the twelve disciples to
96. the Jews
97. the Gentiles and Samaritans
98. Tyre and Sidon
99. The region of Gadara
100. The Greeks and the Samaritans

THEORY              Answer any four (4) questions

1.  Describe the birth, call and leading of Israelites out of Egypt by Moses

2 How did Rehoboam contributed to the division of the Kingdom and what three lessons can be learnt from that?

3 Explain the baptism of Jesus base on Matthew’s account

(b) State three (3) significance of Jesus baptism

4. Deborah was used to deliver the Israelites from King Jabin Discuss…

5. Explain the temptation of Jesus

6. To what extent was the moral weakness of Eli’s children due to their father’s lack of parental responsibility? How did God reacted to this lapse?

CLASS:  S. S.2

SUBJECT:  GOVERNMENT

Instruction: Answer all questions in this section

1. A constitution is said to be rigid if it

(a) Unwritten   (b) can be amended by the President  (c) is difficult to amend  (c) decreed by soldiers

2. Who am ong the following is associated with the concept of rule of law?

(a) Jean Bodin (b) A V Dicey    (c) Jeremy Bentham   (d) Montesgueen Baron

3. The lack of interest in politics by many citizens in a country is called

(a) civil agitation  (b) mass apathy   (c) mass protest  (d) political unrest

4. A unitary system of government is most suitable for a

(a) Highly religious country (b) country with mineral resources (c) Highly populated country (d) small country

5. A unicameral legislature has

(a) Two lowers   (b) one house   (c) three houses   (d) one-two houses

6. A multi-party system of government give room for _____________

(a) Singly party   (b) many parties   (c) three parties   (d) no party

7. The right of the citizens to vote and be voted for in an election is called

(a) Indirect election             (b) nomination (c) general election  (d) franchise

8. An agreed set of rules of governing a country is called ________

(a) Constitution   (b) charter      (c) hazard   (d) nomination

9. All types of government perform all the following functions except

(a) Providing welfare and developmental facilities

(b) Maintaining law and order   (c) encouraging crime   (d) encouraging employment

10. __________ is a type of constitution that is documented

(a) Unwritten   (b) written   (c) Flexible   (d) Unitary

11. All these are ways of losing citizenship except a. disloyalty b. imprisonment c. false declaration d. good character.
12. the group that influence government decisions socially or economically a. political party d. popular participation c. pressure group d. socialism
13. The act of electing candidates to prevent the people of a given country a. voter b. election c. population d. disunity
14. All these are type of elections except a. direct election b. indirect election c. bye election d. voting
15. ____________ is one of our fundamental human right a. right to privacy b.cleaning of road c. voting d. registration
16. The judiciary is an organ of government which [a] settles dispute  [b]  makes laws for the country  [c] gives legal backing to government budget
17. To provide justice in a state , judges must be [a] belong to the ruling party  [b] punish people  [c] enjoy security of tenure of office.
18. People pay taxes in order to [a]  generate revenue government [b] obtain a tax clearance certificate  [c]  save towards the future
19. A multi – party system often leads to [a]  unitary government  [b]  coalation of government  [c]  dictorial governmrnt
20. The right of the citizen to vote and be voted for in an election [a] franchise  [b] nomination  [c] general election
21. An electoral college is a ………… [a] form of indirect [b] school of electoral officers  [c] school of election
22. One of the major advantage of the secret ballot system of election is that ……….. [a]  helps to elect the best candidate  [b] remove the fear of threat  [c] enable the best party to win

23        Public opinion can be expressed through [a] census  [b] general strike  [c] compromise

24. Government as an act of governing refers to the process of [a] ruling  people in the society  [b] establishing political party  [c] none of the above
25. Military government are likely to be [a]  democratic   [b] civilized   [c] dictatorial

26. Government refers to all the following, except
27. an institution of the state
28. the process of ruling a political community
29. the exercise of power and authority
30. the activities of decision-makers
31. the act of civil disobedience
32. Government as the act of governing means the
33. activities of pressure groups and political parties
34. act of vetoing a bill
35. orders of judiciary and legislature
36. activities by which government policies are made and implemented
37. activities of parliamentary opposition
38. Unwritten constitution means that the constitution is
39. not written down
40. based only on converntions
41. not contained in any single book
42. in draft
43. not approved
44. The delegation of Administrative Powers to the local units with the central supervision and control is called
45. devolution
46. decentralizetion
47. deconcentration
48. centralization
49. concentration
50. Which of the following is not the function of the government?
51. Building of roads, bridges, canals, etc
52. Provision of education
53. Maintenance of relations with other states
54. defence of territory from external attack
55. Provision of all the material needs of all citizens
56. A flexible constitution can only be amended by
57. two-third (2/3) majorityvote in the legistrature
58. referendum
59. three-quarters (3/4) majority vote in the legistrature
60. plebiscite
61. simple majority vote in the legistrature
62. Which one of the following countries has an unwritten constitution?
63. Great Britain
64. France
65. United State of American
66. Federal Republic of Germany
67. Germany Democratic Republic
68. A rigid constitution is said to be best suited for a
69. Federal Government
70. Socialist Government
71. Military Government
72. Unitary government
73. Fascist Government
74. Federal Elections were held in Nigeria in
75. 1946,1951,1954,1979 and 1983
76. 1954,1959,1964,1979 and 1983
77. 1923, 1946,1951,1979,and 1983
78. 1954,1960,1964,1979 and1983
79. 1960,1963,1964,1979 and 1983
80. The two components of sovereignty are
81. the rule of law and fundamental human rights
82. political power and political authority
83. political culture and political socialization
84. influence and poltical authority
85. political independence and supreme authority of the state within its territory
86. A Nigeria citizen can only be deprived of his citizenship if he is
87. condemned to death
88. convicted by a court of law
89. married to a foreigner
90. holding a dual citizenship
91. an armed robber
92. In the process of governing, OUTPUT refers to
93. the influence of pressure group
94. demand of the political system
95. the decision of the government
96. the opinion of the electorate
97. the influence of political parties
98. Another word for red-tapism is
99. democracy
100. authocracy
101. idiosyncrasy
102. bureaucracy
103. theocracy
104. Rule adjudication is the main function of the
105. Executive
106. President
107. Legistature
108. Judiciary
109. National Assembly

40.The major problem that arose from the 1979 election centred around the

1. inability of many voters to find their names on the voters register
2. cancellation of election results in many constituencies because of alleged irregularities
3. inability of some dissatisfied candidates to seek redress in the court of law
4. controversy over the presidential election result
5. widespread complaint that too many elections were scheduled too close together

SECOND TERM EXAM

SS2

OBJECTIVES

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

Answer all questions

(1) In drama, comic relief often occurs in

(a) Comedies                    (b) Tragedies            (c) Historical plays     (d) Romantic plays

(2) A struggle between opposing forces in a story or play is

(a) Denouement              (b) Conflicts              (c) Comedy               (d) tragedy

(3) An expression which one derives a mental picture  is

(a) Paradox        (b) Exaggeration      (c) Imagery               (d) Photography

(4) The repetition of the vowel sounds in a line is

(a) alliteration    (b) assonance               (c) onomatopoeia               (d) Parallelism

(5) Poetry is written in-____________________ (a)paragraph     (b)chapters               (c)lines (d)scenes

(6) Many hands make light work illustrates __________________

(a) zeugma         (b) hyperbole               (c) metonymy    (d) synecdoche

(7) A person’s life story written by another person is

(a) A commentary           (b) A biography           (c) An autobiography  (d) An epistolary

(8) The term used to depict the freedom of s poet with language is

(a)  Poetic diction            (b) Bathos  (c) Graphology  (d) Poetic license.

(9) A poem in which a lone speaker seems to be addressing someone else is

(a) A pathetic fallacy       (b) verbal irony                      (c) Dramatic Irony  (d) Dramatic monologue

(10) A poem that celebrates an object, person or event is __________

(a)sonnet            (b) dirge               (c) an ode               (d)elegy

(11) An opposite of the Antagonist is  ____________

(a) An adversary              (b)A foil                       (c) An epitome              (c) A protagonist

(12) The term “Tragic flaw” means

(A ) mistake made by a hero               (b) A moral weakness in the Hero         (c) The first act in a play

(d) The prologue

(13)  _______________ is the location of the action of the plot

(a) setting           (b) narrative technique                         (c) point of view     (d) characterization

(14) The identical sound of the poem is known as

(a) Metre            (b) Refrain               (c) Rhyme           (d) verse

(15) The use of a mild expression to avoid direct statement of an unpleasant truth is known as

(a) Euphemism  (b) Hyperbole               (c) Irony              (d) Simile

(16) The anxiety of the reader to know the subsequent development in a novel is known as  _____________

(a) Conflict         (b) Fiction               (c) Love                (d)Suspense

(17) In drama, the clown creates

(a) confusion     (b) hatred               ()Humor              (d) Horror

(18) Pick out the odd items

(a) Ballad            (b) Hyperbole               (c) Metaphor     (d) simile

(19) The expression ” He is a living dead” is an example of

(a) Antithesis     (b) imagery               (c) Oxymoron    (d) Paradox

(20) One of the main feature of a dramatic play is  _________

(a) Chapters       (b) Acts and scenes  (c) rhyme            (d) Stanza

21. Many hands make light work, illustrate [a] Zeugma [b] hyperbole [c] farce

Read the stanza and answer questions 2 – 4

For days I wept and felt depressed

But then on me our bill impressed

Your love is where she looks bereft

22. The rhyme scheme is [a abab  [b] aaba   [c]  abcc
23. The lines are limbic [a]  pentamenter  [b] trimester   [c]  hexameter
24. A ballard is essentially a ……….. poem [a] dramatic [b]  narrative   [c]  pastoral
25. The lines constitute [a]  an epic  [b] quatrain [c] a sestet

Read the stanza and answer questions 16-18

Pan , o great Pan, to thee

                        Thus do we sing

                        Thou who keepst chaste and free

                          As the young spring

                         Ever be thy honor spake

                         From the place the morn is broke

                         To the place doth unyoke

34. Pen is used here as [a] symbol [b] allusion  [c] metonymy
35. The rhyme scheme of the stanza is [a]  abcabcc   [b]  ababcdd   [c]  babccc
36. The stanza is an example of [a]  appellation   [b]  elegy  [c] pun
37. A dirge is a poem sung   [a]  at a birthday  [b]  at a funeral  [c] at a wedding
38. In literature, repetition is use essentially for [a] rhyme [b]  suspense  [c]
39. Which of the following is common to all forms of literature?
40. language
41. chorus
42. action
43. narrator
44. The three major forms of literature are
45. tragedy,comedy, tragi-comedy
46. poetry,drama,folktales
47. drama,lyric,prose fiction
48. poetry, drama,prose

33. Beauty in poetry depends mainly on
34. expression and rhythm
35. length and theme
36. vowels and consonants
37. mood and verse form

34. Read the extract below and answer this question.

But the towering earth was tired of sitting in one position. She moved, suddenly, and the houses crumbled, the mountains heaved horribly, and the work of a million years was lost.

35. The predominant figure of speech in the above extracts is
36. Oxymoron
37. Metaphor
38. Simile
39. Personification

Read the extract below and answer this question.

But the towering earth was tired of sitting in one position. She moved, suddenly, and the houses crumbled, the mountains heaved horribly, and the work of a million years was lost.

36. The subject matter of the above extract is
37. earthquake
38. house movement
39. sea waves
40. storm

37. The choice of appropriate words to convey the thoughts of an author is called
38. idiomatic language
39. setting
40. figure of speech
41. diction

38. The state of mind of a poet can be described as
39. style
40. mood
41. setting
42. theme

39. Which of the following is a likely source of traditional oral poetry?
40. Theatre
41. fiction
42. books
43. songs

40. An African author who has written plays, poems and prose is
41. Wole Soyinka
42. Zaynab Alkali
43. Chinua Achebe
44. Flora Nwapa

41. In a novel, the antagonist is
42. a fully developed character
43. a flat character
44. the main female character
45. the archrival of the hero

42. The literary device in the statement – ‘Students are to come to class with their Shakespeare’ is called
43. metonymy
44. litotes
45. synecdoche
46. personification

43. The first person narrator is usually
44. the protagonist
45. a villain in the novel
46. the antagonist
47. a character in the novel

44. The first person narrator is usually
45. the protagonist
46. a villain in the novel
47. the antagonist
48. a character in the novel

45. Which of the following is closest to the novel?
46. the short story
47. fable
48. tale
49. epic

46. ”The people’s voices rutted like pigs in the mud” is an example of
47. simile
48. metaphor
49. personification
50. metonymy

47. A play on words is
48. innuendo
49. humour
50. pun
51. jest

48. A play is fully realized when it is
49. studied
50. memorized
51. acted
52. read

49. An epitaph is
50. poem of lamentation
51. a poem of fourteen lines
52. an inscription on a tomb
53. the life history of an author

50. The essential function of a tragedy is to make people
51. laught at mankind
52. think and feel more deeply
53. think and laugh
54. know their enemies

THEORY

1a.  Explain drama

1b   Write five features of Drama

1c  Briefly explain  five elements of drama

2. Narrate the plot of the Novel Blood Of a Stranger

3a. Crisply explain Poetry

3b.  Explain five types of poetry

4. Discuss in details the dreams of the main characters in the play A Raisin in the Sun

5.Consider the view that the play exposes the Colonialist exploitation of Africa—-Blood of a Stranger

1. Consider the importance of the check in the play —-A Raising in the Sun

2nd TERM EXAMINATION

CLASS:  S.S.2

SUBJECT: MARKETING

OBJECTIVES

1.___ is the raw materials used to produce  or transformed to other

product.(A.)bread   (b Clothes (c) Crude oil       (d) Automobiles

2. Products that are purchased when the needs is great are :

(a) staple            (b) Emergency               (c) impulse         (d) Direct

3. ____________ is the general term for buying and selling that is supported by electronics means

(a) Internet commerce   (b) Web commerce (c) Computer commerce

(d) Electronic marketing

4. _____________ consist of building a market into district groups of buyer  on the basis of need characteristics , or  behaviour which might require separate products or marketing mix

(a) Product differentiation                (b) market segmentation    (c0 Market targeting             (d)market positioning

5. What is the most essential element in promotion.

(a) Communication         (b) Advertising         (c) Marketing               (d) consumer care

6. It is important to study hoe consumer

(a)Think, feel, reason,  and select product   (b) Dance , play and reasons

(c) Think, criticize, and achieve               (d) Play, reason and report.

7. Consumer behaviour is the study of except

(a) Individuals , (b) groups, (c) ,marketer, (d) organizations

8. Which of the following is a factor influencing consumer behaviour

(a) Cultural         (b) social               (c)personal         (d) demography

(9) Which of the following is not a  psychological  factor

(a) Anger             (b) perception               (c)m learning     (d) beliefs and attitudes

(10) Which of the following is not a key  element in marketing planning

(a) Target audience         (b) Situation analysis               (c)segmentation               (d)Goals

11. Most firms carryout marketing research because of

(a) Profit             (b) price               (c) consumerism               (d) Introduction of new products

12. __________ is not a form of production

(a) sampling       (b) coupons               (c) Trade – in      (d) marketing planning

13. When an importing country sets limits on the amount of goods m it will accept in certain product categories it is called

(a) quota             (b) barrier               (c) tariff (d)embargo

14. A ____________ is the way consumer s perceive an actual or [potential product               (a) Product idea (b) Product image   (c)product concept

(d) product feature

15. If your company wee to make a product such as a suits of clothes and sold that product to a retailer , your company would have sold to the _________ market   (a) reseller (b) business        (c) government       (d)service

16. In marketing the last link in the channel of distribution is the

(a) consumer     (b) producer               (c) marketer               (d)None of the above

17. ____________ is a promotional form of trading old products for new ones at a reduced price (a) price – off (b) pricing           (c) skimming            (d)pricing

18. Which of the following is a goal of marketing

(a) Consumer satisfaction               (b) franchising   (c) export   (d) import

19. which of the following is consumer goods

(a) Bournvita      (b) Radio               (c0Car   (d) None

20. The following is a product that is bought without any planning or research

(a) Staple            (b) impulse               (c)Emergency    (d) None of the above

21. Another name for 4p’s in marketing is

(a) consumerism               (b)impulse          (c) specially product             (d) marketing mix

22. The activities of marketing that take place outside your country is known as

(a) international marketing               (b) internal marketing               (c) Economic

(d) competitive marketing

23. market information is obtained for

market research               marketing concept               advertising               promotion

24. all but one are the four ps in marketing

(a) public            (b)product                             (c)price                (d)promotion

25. ________ are product bought by individuals and organizations for further processing or for use in conducting a business

(a) Industrial products               (b)service           (c) specialty             (d) promotional

26. Sellers that handle their own experts are engaged in

(a) Licensing       (b)Direct exporting            (c)indirect exporting

27. an example of specialty product is

(a) Bread             (b)Dress                (c)A car (d) Food stuff

28. one of the following is a document used in international trade

(a)bill of lading  (b) ticket               (c) journal

29.Another name for consignment

(a) goods            (b) transport               (c) pipeline

30. The use of pipes underground for transporting liquid and gases is called
31. transport Rail c. land   pipeline
32. The sender of goods is known as
33. consignor Consignment marketer                Consignee
34. what form of transport is used to carry bulky and heavy goods

(a.) rail                (b). car                 (c) .pipeline        (d) Air

33. which of the following is not a factor affecting transportation

(a). cost               (b)speed                             (c)profit                             (d)nature

34. which of the following n is not a function of warehousing

(a)Transportation            (b) Risk bearing       (c)processing               (d) Marketing

35.__________ is not a type of warehous

(a) Public            (b)private               (c) Bonded         (d) Strong

36. __________ is not a mineral product

(a) Copper          (b) Zinc (c) Milo      (d) Gold

37. Which of the following is not a global brand

(a)Coca-Cola      (b) Toyota               (c) Procter and gamble (d) dear mama

38. The fastest form of transportation is

(a) land b)water (c) pipe                (d) Air

39. Sampling is a way of promoting

(a) Debt               (b) branding               (c)sales (d) Income

40. Electronic marketing is usually carried out in the

(a) cities              (b) internet               (c) Abroad               (d)Urban areas

41. Which of the following is not a type of distribution [a]selective[b]exclusive [c] specialty

42.Which of the following is a type of transportation[a]land[b]pipeline[c]free

43.The fastest form of transportation is by [a]land[b]air[c]road

44.The form of transportation to move bulk goods is [a]air[b]rail[c]pipeline

45. The following is a document used in transportation[a]credit card[b]bill of lading[c]vending machine
46. What makes a product different from others[a]cost[b]branding[c]name
47. Which of the following is a brand name[a]bank[b]coca cola[c]milk
48. One of the following is a type of warehouse[a]security[b]bonded[c]international
49. Which of the following is a goal of marketing[a]consumer satisfaction[b]export[c]franchising
50. Which of the following is not a function of marketing[a]storage[b]selling[c]retailing

THEORY

1. What is consumer behaviour
2. Differentiate between consumer and organizational behaviour

2. List the various stages of consumer buying process
3. Explain three (3) internal organizational factors in organizational buying behaviour

3. Define market plan

b . what ius mnarketing research

1. what are the reasons for market research

4. What is pricing

b .explain four pricing strategies you know

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

CLASS: SS 2

SUBJECT: ECONOMICS

Pick the correct option from the alternative A – D

1. In a socialist economy, prices of commodities are determined by (a) Forces of demand and supply (b) Producers of the commodities (c) The central Planning authority (d) Consumers who are sovereign
2. Human wants are insatiable because wants are (a) Limited While means are scarce (b) Unlimited and means are also unlimited (c) Limited and means are also limited (d) Unlimited while means are scare
3. Scale of preference is important for the following reasons except in (a) Satisfying wants (b) Making rational choice (c) Making optimum allocation of resources (d) Using scarce resources
4. The opportunity cost of a worker going to the university is (a) Tuition fees and books (b) Boarding and lodging (c) The wages given up to attend university (d) Transportation and entertainment
5. In a market economy, the problem of what goods to produce is solved primarily by (a) Directives of the government (b) The pattern of consumers’ spending (c) Producers of consumer goods (d) People producing what they wants
6. A right ward shift in the supply curve of a commodity is brought about by an increase in (a) The level of technology (b) The price of the commodity (c) Cost of production (d) Taxation
7. The total number of people of working age who are willing and prepared to work at a given wage rate is the (a) Labour force (b) Supply of labour (c) Demand for labour (d) Occupational demand for labour
8. Which of the following can be added to a firms profit to obtain total revenue (a) Total Variable Cost (b) Total Fixed Cost (c) Marginal Cost (d) Total Cost
9. Which of the following is true of a monopolist? (a) His average revenue curve is horizontal (b) He determines both price and output (c) His demand and marginal revenue curves are the same (d) he determines either price or output
10. Location of firms in rural areas may (a) Enable the firms to enjoy existing infrastructural facilities (b) Make finance readily available (c) Enhance even or balance development (d) Make such firms enjoy external economies of scale
11. Efficiency of labour in a country is determined by the following  factors except the (a) Social attitude to work (b) Education and training (c) Working conditions or workers (d) Total population
12. At which stage of production should a firm shut down? When (a) AVC = ATC (b) AVC = < Price (c) AVC = > Price (d) AVC = MC
13. Perfect knowledge of events in a perfect market will be made possible by the existence of (a) many buyers and sellers (b) Homogeneous product (c) Means of communication (d) Large number of trades
14. The profit of a producer is the difference between (a) Total cost and marginal cost (b) Total revenue and total cost (c) Average cost and total cost (d) price and total cost
15. Which of the following is not a feature of socialism? (a) Collective ownership of productive resources (b) Freedom of enterprise (c) Production is not based on the profit motive (d) Maximization of public welfare
16. A government that wants to get more revenue will increase the Tax on commodities with (a) High price elasticity of demand (b) Low price elasticity of demand (c) High income elasticity of demand (d) Low income elasticity of demand
17. The type of monopoly that develops as a result of uneven distribution of resources is called (a) Legal Monopoly (b) Natural Monopoly (c) State Monopoly (d) International Monopoly
18. All economic systems must decide what to produce because (a) Resources are not available (b) Consumers want maximum satisfaction (c) Resources are limited in supply (d) Producers want maximum profit
19. The Production Possibility Curve (PPC) indicates that as more of one good is produced (a) Less of the other good is produced (b) The same quantity of the other good is produced (c) More of the other goods is produced (d) None of the other good is produced
20. A firm will shut down in the long run if its earning is (a) Les than normal profit (b) Greater than normal profit (c) Equal to super normal profit (d) Less than super normal profit

21. One of the disadvantages of division of labour is that [A] saves time [B] makes work monotonous [C] makes workers skilled at their works
22. The value of money is affected by [A]speculative motive [B] price level [C] transactionary motive [D] employment level
23. Which of the following is not a problem in barter eceonomy [A]multiple exchange rate [B]indivisibility of goods and services [C] Double coincidence of want [D]Bulkness of commondities
24. A stock exchange is a market that [A]deals with exchange of commondities [b]deals with purchase abd sales of securities [c]sells foreign exchange
25. The situation whereby government revenue is less than government expenditure is referred to as [a]budget deficit [b]budget balance [c]budget surplus
26. 6 Which of the following would not increase the population of a country [a]immigration [b]an increase in birth rate [c]a decrease in death rate [d]emigration
27. One of the instruments of protection of infant industries is the [a] price control board [b]open market operation [c]tariff [d]GDP
28. Which of the following is a function of a commercial bank [a]issue currencies [b]accept deposit [c]determine the rate of interest [d]the lenders of last resort
29. Division of labour leads to [a]employment of everybody [b]decrease in output [c]monotony of works [d]increase in time in workshops
30. The largest employment sector in a tytpical west Africa country is[a]construction [b]transportation [c]education [d]Agriculture
31. Use the information below to answer questions 11-14
32. The population of a school is 12,000 represented by the pie chart below11.What is the population of boys [a]6,000 [b[8,000 [c]3000 [d]4000
33. What is the Population of Teachers[a]1000 [b]3000[c]4000[d]2000
34. What is the total population of boys and girls [a]10000[b]3000[c]9000[d]11000
35. What is the percentage of Teachers[A]33.3% [b]16.7% [c]50%[d]70%
39. Which of the following is a non-banking sector [a]GTBank [b]JAIZ Bank[c]IICO Assurance [d]Zenith Bank

SECTION B

Answer all the questions

1. What is a perfect competition?
   1. With the aid of diagrams, discuss the equilibrium position of a perfect competitive firm
2. Distinguish between location of industry and localization of industry
   1. Describe any four factors which influence the location of industries
3. Distinguish between Fixed and Variable cost
   1. Under which conditions will a firm continue to operate at a loss in the short run
4. Define Labour
   1. Give four factors that affect the efficiency of labour in your

S S 2

SUBJECT: – CIVIC EDUCATION

Instruction:   Answer all questions in section A and any other 4 questions in Sections B.

SECTION A

1. ________is a body of rules and regulations through which a society is governed to maintain peace and order.

(a) programme           (b) virtue           (c) integrity        (d) law

2. There are _______forms of democracy

(a) 4             (b) 3                     (c) 5                     (d)  2

3. ____________is a system where citizens choose their representative to rule on their behalf

(a) abstract democracy (b) mobilized democracy   (c) direct democracy

(d) Indirect democracy

4. One of the following is a characteristic of democracy

(a) Indirect asset           (b) direct asset  (c) people access

(d) press freedom

5. The principle of the rule of law was propounded by

(a) Fawehinmi           (b) Blanchard   (c) Abraham Lincoln  (d) Dicey

6. One of the skills needed to presence traditions customs and beliefs is

__________(a) Mass mobilization   (b) crime   (c) stealing  (d) taxes

7. Who define democracy as government of the people by the people and for the people?

(a) Abraham Lincoln         (b) Tafawa Balewa   (c) Olusegun Olurotimi

(d) Murtala Muhammed

8. A legitimate number of a given state is called

(a) citizen               (b) servant           (c) master                     (d) civil

9. ___________ is the feeling of not being interested in something

(a) apathy   (b) Fidelity          (c) forms (d) voting

10. The act of manipulating election is called ____________

(a) election rigging         (b) apathy         (c) chaotic        (d) voting

11. All these are reasons why leaders fail to protect the interests of their followers except

(a) Revenue allocation    (b) God-fatherism           (c) greedy  (d) Free and fair election

12. The public declaration of plans, principles, programmes and agenda which political party intends to accomplish if vote into power

(a) manifesto           (b) political parties            (c) opinion           (d) charisma

13. All these are reasons why people do not participate in politics except

(a) illiteracy            (b) bad governance            (c) political system

(d) free and fair election

14. The total number of people living in a particular place at a period of time is _______________

(a)population            (b) movement (c) transportation (d) communication

15. The arm of government that interpret the law of the state is called ______

(a)  Executive            (b) Legislature   (c) Assembly     (d) Judiciary

16. [1]The universal declaration of human right was adopted by the United Nation General Assembly in  [a]  1948   [b] 1950  [c]  1940   [d] 1967

[17] How many articles do we have in UDHR [a]  40   [b] 20  [c]   28   [d]    30

[18] All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights, this is under article  [a]  3   [b] 5  [c] 7   [d] 10

[19] The UDHR draft committee was headed by  [a]  Theresa Mary   [b]  Aisha Buhari [c]   Eleanor Roosevelt    [d] Joy Chima

[20] The first cult group was formed in…….. [a] 1952  [b]  1960   [c]  1987   [d] 1990

[21] The first cult group in Nigerian campus was called  [a] black axe    [b]Eiye  [c]  OPC  [d] pyrates franternity

[22] ……….. is not a cult group  [a]  Red Devil   [b]  Th e skull  [c]  Black axe   [d] Vikings fraternity

[23] Which of the following is good for orderliness   [a]  decorum  [b]   killings   [c]   fighting   [d]   preaching

[24] Which of the following Is not a merit of orderliness  [a] fulfillment   [b] emulation  [c]   peace   [d]  decorum

[25] ……….. is not an example of constituted authority   [a]  Governors   [b]  Ministers   [c]   President   [d]   Youth leader

[26] Which of the following is among the youngest country in Africa  [a]  South Sudan  [b] Nigeria   c] Ghana   [d]  Libya

[27] The pyrates fraternity was formed by   [a] Adams Smith   [b]  Wole Soyinka  [c]  John Legend    [d] Adams Sanni

[28] ……… is one of the dangers of cultism  [a]  Death   [b]  wealth   [c]   treason   [d]  spiritual power

[29] Human rights can be classified into the following except  [a]  Political right  [b] civic right  [c]business right  [d]economic right

[30] Limitation to human right includes the following except  [a]war  [b] death   [c]curfew  [d] political demonstration

[31] Which of the following is not a type of constituted authority   [a]  Traditional   [b]  Government   [c] religious   [d] political

[32] Which of the following is not an example of orderliness  [a]  listening skills   [b] driving skills   [c] decorum    [d]  kindness

[33] No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention in exile according to article …….. [a] 4  [b]   7  [c]  9   [d] 10

[34] The United Nation National Assembly is located  in  ……………. [a]  Lome   [b] Paris  [c] London   [d]  New York

[35] The Nigerian constitution is…………… [a] unwritten     [b] flexible   [c] written [d] weak

[36] ………..are laws made during military rules   [a] decree   [b] bye-law  [c] Legal laws   [d] state laws

[37] The main function of the executive is   [a] making laws    [b]  policy formulation    [c]powers of investigation   [d] none of the above

[38]  ……………. IS not among the armed forces in Nigeria     [a]custom services   [b] Navy    [c] Army   [d]  Airforces

[39] The feelings of not being interested in political activities is called   [a] freedom  [b]  political rights   [c]  civic rights    [d]   political apathy

[40] The international court of Justice is located at where………….  [a] London   [b]  Hague    [c]   New York    [d] Paris

[41] Causes of cultism includes the following except  [a]societal decay   [b] peer group influence  [c] emotional sickness   [d] economic hardship

[42] Which of the following is a female cult group in Nigeria   [a] Real Devils   [b]  Amazon   [c] Mafia   [d] Black axe

[43] Which of the following Countries is a member of UN security Council  [a] Nigeria   [b] Egypt   [c] Brazil   [d]  United States of America

[44] Nigerian’s population is estimated to be in the range of……………….[a] 100-150 millions   [b] 200-300 millions   [c] 150-200 millions    [d] 80-180 millions

[45] The highest political post in Nigeria is ……..  [a]  Senator   [b] President   [c] Governor   [d] Oba

SECTION B

1a.      Explain the term political apathy

1. List five reasons for political apathy
2. What is political party and outline ways of how political party compete for power through elections

3a.      what do you understand by the term popular participation?

1. Define Democracy
2. List 5 duties and obligations of citizens to their communities

ACCOUNTING

1. The term “accounting period” is used to refer to the
2. time span during which taxes are paid to the inland revenue board
3. budget period, usually one year, relied on by the accountant
4. time span, usually one year, covered by financial statement
5. period within which debtors are expected to settle accounts

2

Assigning revenues to the accounting period in which goods were sold or services rendered and expenses incurred is known as

1. passing of entries
2. consistency convention
3. matching concept
4. adjusting for revenue

3

The accounting convention which states that profit must not be recognized until realized while all losses should be adequately provided for it termed

1. materiality
2. objectivity
3. consistency
4. conservatism

4

Accounting information is used by investors and creditors of a company to predict

1. future cash flows of the company
2. future tax payments of the company
3. potential merger candidates for the company
4. appropriate remunerations for the company’s staff

5

Antics Electronic Company recently bought six generators. Which of the following is the correct method of recording this transaction?

1. Debit generator account and credit cash account
2. Debit purchases account and credit cash account
3. Debit cash accounts and credit purchases account
4. Debit cash account and credit generator account

When a business incurs labour cost in installing a fixed asset, the cost is treated as

1. additional cost to the asset
2. business wages and salaries
3. installation cost of the asset
4. business cost of the asset

7

What is the cardinal rule of the double entry system?

1. Debit the increasing account and credit the decreasing account
2. Debit the receiving account and credit the giving account
3. Debit the asset account and credit the liability account
4. Debit the revenue account and credit the expenditure account

8

Mallam Gambo bought a freezer for his shop costing N10,500. In recording, he debited office expenses account and credited the bank account. What book-keeping error has he committed?

1. Error of commission
2. Error of reversal of entries
3. Error of principle
4. Compensating error

9

The use of the folio in the ledger is for

1. referencing purposes
2. particulars of the transaction
3. the account titles
4. only credit items

10

The suspense account is used to correct book-keeping error where the

1. amount involved is quite significant
2. item involved is not material
3. item involved is unknown
4. error does not affect the agreement of the trial balance

Which of the following transactions will result in disagreement between the cash book and the bank statements?

1. selling of goods on credit to a customer
2. withdrawal of goods by the proprietor for his personel use
3. cheque paid directly into the bank account by a customer
4. omission of purchase of purchases received from a supplier on credit

12

Purchase account is overcast by ₦200, while wages account is undercast by ₦200. This is

1. an error of omission
2. a compensating error
3. an error of commision
4. an error of principal

13

Which of the following is used to record the disposal of a fixed asset?

1. journal proper
2. petty cash book
3. sales day book
4. purchase day book

14

An error of principle is made, if

1. an entry has been made on the wrong class of account
2. a ransaction has been completely omitted
3. an entry has been made on the wrong side of the two accounts corcened
4. a transaction is entered in both accounts for the wrong amount

15

Which of the following is entered in the general journal?

1. purchase of goods
2. sale of goods on credit
3. returns inward
4. aquisition of fixed assets

which of the following is not an administrative expenses in a manufacturing organization?

1. discounts allowed
2. office electricity
3. stationery
4. insurance

22

Which of the following items is not contained in the Receipts and Payments Account?

1. Subscription paid in advance
2. stock paid for in advance
3. outstanding wages and salaries
4. donations

23

The accounting concept underlying the treatment of personal expenses of the business owner as drawing is

1. periodicity
2. accrual
3. entity
4. materiality

24

The sum of direct cost in a manufacturing account is

1. production cost
2. prime cost
3. total cost
4. finance cost

25

When an asset is sold, the entries for the accumulated depreciation are; debit

1. assets disposal account; credit provision for depreciation account
2. provision for depreciation account; credit asset disposal account
3. fixed asset account; credit asset disposal account
4. asset disposal account; credit fixed asset account

An example of input devices of a computer is

1. an optical character reader
2. a graph plotter
3. a visual display unit
4. a printer

38

The accounting concept which states that expenditure involving insignificant amounts should be regarded as expenses and not assets is

1. business entity
2. materiality
3. dual aspect
4. realization

39

A company made a net profit of ₦2,000,000 for the year and its net profit percentage is 25%. What is the total sales for the year?

1. ₦8,000000
2. ₦6,00000
3. 800,000
4. ₦500,000

40

Which of the following information is recorded in the returns outwards book?

1. goods purchased on credit and susequently returned to suppliers
2. fixed asset bought on credit and subsequently returned to supplier
3. cash payment received from a customer and subsequently returned to supplier
4. goods sold to a customer and subsequently returned to the business